Hi! I’m pretty sure you’re right with the first one!
Answer:
it was Spain
Explanation:
rather than Portugal, that first made extensive use of enslaved Africans as a colonial labor force in the Americas. Ferdinand II pointing across Atlantic to where Columbus is landing with three ships amid large group of Indians, ca.
Answer:
There were no banks and very little money, so colonists used barter and credit to get the things they needed.
Explanation:
The colonist didn't like their view on the money and taxes. Because the taxed mostly colonist cuz of the king. The King and Parliament believed they had the right to tax the colonies. The colonists didn't like that but the British people didn't really are cuz they believed in there king.
I believe it is both Greek and Rome, but more of Greek
Greek is mentioned in relation to democracy, especially the weaknesses of direct democracy, where citizens would congregate at the mount to air their views and elect the candidate of their choice. The candidate who had hired the most talented shouters often won. The limitation of mob type of democracy informed the rationale behind the electoral college.
Rome is mentioned in relation to the course of imperialism on national cohesion and stability, as well as the capture of a good democratic course by totalitarian regimes.
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