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Marrrta [24]
3 years ago
11

Help! Please!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Elan Coil [88]3 years ago
5 0
Because there are infinitely many numbers that are either greater or less than variable x.
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Renee, Susan, and Martha will share the cost to rent a vacation house for a week. Renee will pay 40 percent of the cost. What fr
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

Amount paid by Martha = $200

Amount paid by Renee = $320

Amount paid by Susan = $280

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, the given question is INCOMPLETE.

Renee, Susan and Martha will share the cost to rent a vacation house for a week. Renee will pay 40% of the cost. Susan will pay 0.35 of the cost. Martha will pay the remainder of the cost. If the cost to rent the vacation house is $800, how much will each person pay?

Here, the total cost of the vacation  = $800.

Renee pays 40% of the cost.

Calculating 40% of $800, we get:

\frac{40}{100} \times 800 = 320

So, Renee pays a total of $320 in the cost of vacation.  ... (1)

Susan pays 0.35 = 35 %  of the cost.

Calculating 35% of $800, we get:

\frac{35}{100} \times 800 = 280

So, Susan pays a total of $280 in the cost of vacation.  ... (2)

Now, The amount paid by { Renee + Susan  + Martha} = $800

⇒ $320 + $280 + Amount paid by Martha  = $800

⇒Amount paid by Martha = $800 - $600 = $200

Hence, Amount paid by Martha = $200

Amount paid by Renee = $320

Amount paid by Susan = $280

7 0
3 years ago
What is the fraction of this question plz help me
expeople1 [14]

There is probability of 7/8 of not getting yellow.

3 0
3 years ago
A stationary store has decided to accept a large shipment of ball-point pens if an inspection of 19 randomly selected pens yield
Romashka [77]

Given Information:  

Probability of shipment accepted = p = 5%

Probability of shipment not accepted = q = 95%

Total number of pens = n = 19

Required Information:  

Probability of shipment being accepted with no more than 2 defective pens = P( x ≤ 2) = ?  

Answer:

P( x ≤ 2) = 0.933

Step-by-step explanation:

The given problem can be solved using Bernoulli distribution  which is given by

P(n, x) = nCx pˣqⁿ⁻ˣ  

The probability of no more than 2 defective pens means

P( x ≤ 2) = Probability of 0 defective pen + Probability of 1 defective pen + Probability of 2 defective pens

P( x ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)

For P(0) we have p = 0.05, q = 0.95, n = 19 and x = 0

P(0) = 19C0(0.05)⁰(0.95)¹⁹

P(0) = (1)(1)(0.377)

P(0) = 0.377

For P(1) we have p = 0.05, q = 0.95, n = 19 and x = 1

P(1) = 19C1(0.05)¹(0.95)¹⁸

P(1) = (19)(0.05)(0.397)

P(1) = 0.377

For P(2) we have p = 0.05, q = 0.95, n = 19 and x = 2

P(2) = 19C2(0.05)²(0.95)¹⁷

P(2) = (171)(0.0025)(0.418)

P(2) = 0.179

Therefore, the required probability is

P( x ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)

P( x ≤ 2) = 0.377 + 0.377 + 0.179

P( x ≤ 2) = 0.933

P( x ≤ 2) = 93.3%

Therefore, the probability that this shipment is accepted with no more than 2 defective pens is 0.933.

8 0
3 years ago
What is the check digits (d) for the master card number 5130 7201 2608 209d <br> A)1 B)3 C)5 D)7
LenKa [72]

I hope this is just a maths problem coz if this is your card number I wouldn't be putting it on here for all to see.

6 0
3 years ago
Please try to give me the answers
gladu [14]

Answer:

a = 1, b = 2, c = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

a +  \frac{1}{b +  \frac{1}{c} }  =  \frac{10}{7}  \\  \\ a +  \frac{1}{b +  \frac{1}{c} }  = 1 +  \frac{3}{7}  \\  \\ a +  \frac{1}{b +  \frac{1}{c} }  = 1 +   \frac{1}{\frac{7}{3} }  \\  \\ a +  \frac{1}{b +  \frac{1}{c} }  = 1 +   \frac{1}{2 + \frac{1}{3} }  \\  \\ equating \: like \: terms \: on \: both \: sides \\  \\ a = 1 \\  \\ b = 2 \\  \\ c = 3

5 0
2 years ago
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