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Vikki [24]
3 years ago
11

The Simon Corporation issued 10-year, $4,440,000 par, 7% callable convertible subordinated debentures on January 2, 2020. The bo

nds have a par value of $1,000, with interest payable annually. The current conversion ratio is 14:1, and in 2 years it will increase to 16:1. At the issuance date, the bonds were sold at 98. Bond discount is amortized on a straight-line basis. Simon’s effective tax rate was 35%. Net income in 2014 was $ 9,500,000, and the company had 2,000,000 shares outstanding during the entire year.
Instructions:
(a) Prepare a schedule to compute both basic and diluted earnings per share.
(b) Discuss how the schedule would differ if the security was convertible preferred stock.
Business
1 answer:
Irina18 [472]3 years ago
4 0

Solution:

(a) Net income for year                                                      $9,500,000

Add: Adjustment for interest (net of tax)                              234,000 *

                                                                                           $9,734,000

*Maturity value                                                                  $4,440,000

Stated rate                                                                                    X 7%

Cash interest                                                                          350,000

Discount amortization [(1.00 – .98) X $4,440,000X 1/10]     10,000

Interest expense                                                                    360,000

1 – tax rate (35%)                                                                         X .65

After-tax interest $234,000 $4,440,000X /$1,000 = 5,000 debentures

Increase in diluted earnings per share denominator: 5,000 x 18=90,000

Earnings per share: Basic EPS $9,500,000 ÷ 2,000,000 = $4.75

Diluted EPS $9,734,000 ÷ 2,090,000 = $4.66

(b) If the convertible security were preferred stock, basic EPS would be the same assuming there were no preferred dividends declared or the preferred was noncumulative. For diluted EPS, the numerator would be the net income amount and the denominator would be 2,090,000.

DILUTIVE SECURITIES AND EARNINGS PER SHARE (cont.)

Any shares may be "antidilutive." In other words, if the above-mentioned laws are translated and implemented, the EPS will increase.  

Net profit of 10 000 USD and 50 000 non-weighted-average outstanding shares can be never considered to be transferred to anti-dilutive securities when measuring diluted EPS. Odd Co. also had outstanding $100,000 convertible bonds. Such bonds were sold in cash, are 10 percent interest payable and can be exchanged into 5,000 common stock shares. The tax rate of Odd Co.'s is 40%.

In the calculification of Diluted EPS the convertible bonds can not be expected to be converted. In the event of a conversion, the net revenue would be increased by $6,000 (same as $10,000x (1-40%). Shares are projected to rise by 5,000. That will boost EPS from $0.20 to $10,000 and 50,000 to $0.29 per share (equal to ($10,000+$6,000)/(50,000 + 5,000)).

If a corporation has several types of dilutive shares, the per share effect is based on the EPS of each class. Securities classes are then graded to be the most dilutive class. The investment class that lowers the EPS most is expected to be transformed in the first place, the class that lowers the EPS to the next largest, etc.

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Which mission area includes restoring health and social services networks and returning economic and business activities to a he
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": recovery.

Explanation:

The U.S. Federal Emergency Aid (<em>FEMA</em>) is an agency that aims to provide the necessary support needed in front of major events and natural disasters. The FEMA has five (5) mission areas: <em>prevention, protection, mitigation, response, </em>and <em>recovery</em>. FEMA's recovery mission is to put back on track communities affected by incidents. FEMA's core capabilities include planning,  health and social services, infrastructure systems and economic recovery.

8 0
4 years ago
Jarvis wants to invest equal semiannual payments in order to have $10,000 at the end of 20 years. Assuming that Jarvis will earn
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

$10,000 divided by the future amount of an ordinary  annuity of 40 payments of $1 each at an interest rate of  3% per period.

Explanation:

given data

semiannual payments = $10,000

time period = 20 year

annual rate = 6%

solution

The question has future value because it calculates the periodic amount of the annual amount that must be invested to produce the given amount in the future.

Accordingly, the appropriate factor showing the effect of compound interest is derived from the formula for the future value of the common annuity of $1

This factor multiplied by the periodic payment is equal to the future amount. If the payment is unknown, the future amount of the regular annuity formula can be calculated by dividing the future amount ($ 10,000) by the appropriate factor obtained.

when payment is made semiannually for 20 years,

then 40 compounding period is involved.

If the interest rate is 6% the semiannual interest rate is 3%.

3 0
4 years ago
A strength of generation x managers is likely to be their multiple choice loyalty to the firm. individualistic approach to probl
lianna [129]

The strength of GENx managers may be their capacity to give feedback to workers. Maslow thought that the desire to meet unfulfilled wants served as the foundation for motivation.

<h3>What characterizes a competent manager?</h3>

In addition to leading teams and fostering their growth, excellent managers are also able to fully control their company's operations and performance. These are the individuals who consistently adapt to new circumstances, inspire others to realize their greatest potential, and produce their finest work.

Employee morale is raised and motivation for the job is increased thanks to feedback. It is an inherent attribute of a manager to be able to receive feedback from his staff.

Therefore, choice 3 is the appropriate response to the statement.

Learn more about Gen X managers:

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3 0
2 years ago
Rust Pipe Co. was established in 1994. Four years later the company went public. At that time, Robert Rust, the original owner,
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

Rust Pipe Co.

The Percentage of the Founder's Family Votes to Class B  Votes:

= Founder's Family Votes / Class B Votes x 100 = 577,775/1,747,475 x 100 = 33.-6%

Explanation:

Total votes for the Founder's Family = 52,525 x 11 = 577,775

Class B votes = 1,747,475 (1,800,000 - 52,525) x 1 vote = 1,747,475

Founders of companies who want to go public but still retain control of the entity may decide to issue two or more classes of shares in order to allocate more voting rights to some classes than the others.

In this case, while the founder's family currently held 52,525 shares representing 29.2% of the total outstanding shares, in voting rights, the founder's family has 33.6% control.

4 0
3 years ago
Manufacturing cost data for Orlando Company, which uses a job order cost system, are presented below. Indicate the missing amoun
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

(a)  $54796  (b)  $58,800  (c)  $ 15100  (d) $117916   (e) $ 352916 (f) $ 374216

 (g)  $326316   (h) $ 82824.18 (i) $ 64276.82 (j)  $234500  (k) $1900

Explanation:

The calculations are as follows.

                                              Case A         Case B              Case C

Direct materials used      $ (a) 54796           $91,200          $69,000

Direct labor                              52,200          143,800          (h) 82824.18

Manufacturing overhead applied 42,804      (d)117916         (i)64276.82

Total manufacturing costs           149,800     (e) 352916            216,100

Working

The following formula is used to find the missing values :

Total MFG Cost= DM + DL+ MFG OH

a)  149800- 42804-52200= 54796

d)  Ratio of MfgOH to DL= 42,804/52,200= 0.82

Mfg Overhead for Case 2=  0.82* 143,800= 117916

e) 91,200+ 143,800+ 117916= 352916

h+i) Conversion Costs for Case 3=  216100-69000=147100

Mfg OH is 82% of DL

Total Conversion Cost will be 1.82

1.82x= 147100

x= 147100/1.82

x= 82,824.18

h)DL= 82824.18

i) MFG OH= CC- DL= 147100- 82824.18= 64276.82

Work in process 1/1/14           (b) 58,800              21,300             18,400

Total cost of work in process      208,600      (f) 374216        (j)234500

Working

The following formula is used to find the missing values

Total WIP Cost- Total MFG Cost= Opening WIP

b)Total WIP Cost- Total MFG Cost= 208600-149800= 58,800

f) Total MFG Cost+ WIP= 352916 + 21,300   =374216

j) Total MFG Cost+ WIP=216,100 + 18,400= 234500

Work in process 12/31/14          (c)  15100             11,900             (k)1900

Cost of goods manufactured     193,500     (g) 326316              232,600

Working

The following formula is used to find the missing values

Total WIP-CGS= Ending WIP

c) Total WIP-CGS= 208600-193500 = 15100

g)  Total WIP- Ending WIP= 374216- 11,900      = 326316

k) Total WIP-CGS=234500- 232,600 = 1900

After filling in the blanks:

                                              Case A         Case B              Case C

Direct materials used      $ (a) 54796           $91,200          $69,000

Direct labor                              52,200          143,800          (h) 82824.18

Manufacturing overhead applied 42,804      (d)117916         (i)64276.82

Total manufacturing costs           149,800     (e) 352916            216,100

Work in process 1/1/14           (b) 58,800              21,300             18,400

Total cost of work in process      208,600      (f) 374216        (j)234500

Work in process 12/31/14          (c)  15100             11,900             (k)1900

Cost of goods manufactured     193,500     (g) 326316              232,600

6 0
3 years ago
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