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maria [59]
3 years ago
15

Bramble Vita produces a wide range of herbal supplements sold nationwide through independent distributors. In response to an inc

reasing demand for its products, the company is considering the purchase of a new packaging machine to replace the seven-year-old machine currently in use. The new machine will cost $176,300, and installation will require an additional $3,275. The machine has a useful life of 10 years and is expected to have a salvage value of $3,730 at that time. The variable cost to operate the new machine is $11.80 per carton compared to the current machine’s variable cost of $11.90 per carton, and Bramble Vita expects to pack 258,000 cartons each year. If the new machine is purchased, Bramble Vita will avoid a required $11,550 overhaul of the current machine in four years. The current machine has a market value of $13,150. Identify the amount and timing of all cash flows related to the acquisition of the new packaging machine.
Business
1 answer:
kiruha [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer and Explanation:

The Statement showing the amount and the timing of all the cash Flow of Burger is shown below:-

Year      Particulars                                             Amount

0            Cost of new machine                                       ($176,300)

0            Additional installation cost of new machine   ($3,275)

0            Sales of old machine                                          $13,150

1-3          Savings in overhaul cost of old machine           $11,550

1-10        Saving in variable cost                                        $25,800

           (258,000 × ($11.90 - $11.80)

10          Salvage value of new machine                            $3,730

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ABC Corporation offered a four-for-one stock split. The number of outstanding shares before the split was 15,000, and the par va
svetoff [14.1K]

<u>Answer:</u> D. 60,000 shares at $5 per share

<u>Explanation:</u>

The company has 15,000 shares and offers to split the stock four-for-one. It means that the there will be four times the number of shares but the total value of the shares, before and after the split, would remain the same.

The total value of shares = $15,000 x 20 = $300,000

Since the stock split is 4-for-1, the number of shares would be = 15000 x 4

= 60,000 shares

Therefore the total value of shares divided by the number of shares will give us the par value of the shares:

300,000 / 60,000 = $5

8 0
3 years ago
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Lena is a sole proprietor. In April of this year, she sold equipment purchased four years ago for $26,000 with an adjusted basis
viva [34]

Answer:

  1. Lena has a ORDINARY GAIN of $1,500 from the sale of the first equipment.
  2. Lena has a ORDINARY LOSS of $2,700 from the sale of the second equipment.

Explanation:

Lena sold the first equipment for $17,000, and that resulted in an ordinary gain = $17,000 - $15,500 = $1,500. This gain was due to a §1245 depreciation recapture.

Lena sold the second equipment for $5,500, and that resulted in an ordinary loss (§1231 loss) = $5,500 - $8,200 = $2,700.

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3 years ago
Marginal Utility is the satisfaction or usefulness obtained from acquiring one more unit of a product.
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<u>Answer:</u>

<em>True </em>

<em></em>

<u>Explanation:</u>

Marginal utility evaluates the additional fulfillment that a customer earns from consuming extra units of merchandise or administrations. The idea of marginal utility is utilized by market analysts to decide the number of items customers are eager to buy. Positive peripheral service happens when the utilization of an extra thing expands the free utility while minimizing negative utility happens when the use of an extra something diminishes the complete efficiency.

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Explanation:

A mixed economic system is a system that combines aspects of both capitalism and socialism. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for governments to interfere in economic activities in order to achieve social aims.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

Over-applied by $3,842

Explanation:

If<em>, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

<em>and</em>

<em>Since, Applied Overheads < Actual Overheads, overheads have been under- applied.</em>

Applied Overheads = Predetermined rate x Actual Activity

where,

Predetermined rate = Budgeted Overheads  ÷ Budgeted Activity

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Predetermined rate = $ 157,050 ÷ 4,500

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Applied Overheads = $34.90 x 4,580 = $159,842

<em>Since, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

Over-applied overheads = $159,842 - $ 156,000 = $3,842

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