Question

If Serbia had used the term “murder” rather than “ethnic cleansing” to describe its actions against Muslims, it is likely that they would have?
A. proceeded in exactly the same way.
B. won more civilian support for their actions.
C. felt too guilty to continue with their plans.
D. achieved their goals more quickly.

Answer 1

If Serbia had used the term ‘Murder’ rather than ‘Ethnic Cleansing’ to describe its actions against Muslims back then it was because that they felt too guilty to continue with their plans to ‘Mass Killings’ or ‘Public Genocides’.  

Further Explanation:

It was the period of mid 1990s when the government In Yugoslavia started to fall. Many ethnic groups and people from many other communities used to live together from around 40 years under respective communist government. But the collapse of government gave two provinces reason to declare themselves as independent countries and due to this the war broke out between Serbia and these republics. These issues created serious tensions between people of communities and they turned up against each other after living together peacefully for years.  It was in year 1992, when the term, ’Ethnic Cleansing’ was used for the first time, When the Serbians started to remove all the ‘Bosnian Muslims’ who were known as Bosniaks. Serbians attacked Bosniaks with military equipment and surrounded their capital city. People were murdered, Women were raped and civilians were tortured on the name of ‘Ethnic Cleansing’.  

The Serbians linked word ‘Ethnic Cleansing’ to the murders of ‘Bosniaks’ because if they would have used the term ‘Genocide’ then it may have required intervention of United states under Intervention law and other than that, People from Serbia didn’t wanted their people to feel bad or guilty about their doings if word murder or genocide was linked with this, That is why the term Ethnic cleansing was used.  

Learn more:

1. In Furman v. Georgia (1972), the Supreme Court ruled in WilliamFuran’s favor, saying that Georgia had? brainly.com/question/2816742

2. Why did NaziGermany build concentration camps in Poland?brainly.com/question/1782564

Answer details:

Grade: High School

Subject: History

Chapter: Serbian Genocide

Keywords – Serbia, Yugoslavia, Mass Killings, Murders, Ethnic Cleansing, Bosniaks, Serbian Muslims, Rapes, civilians tortured.

Answer 2

The correct answer is - A. proceeded in exactly the same way.

Whichever of the two terms, ''murder''' or ''ethnic cleansing'' was used by the Serbs, it was not going to make any change in their action against the Muslims in Bosnia and Herzegovina. The people now the meaning of both terms well, and that both of the terms mean pretty much the same thing. The tensions and hatred were already on place, so once the war started, the only option for the participants in it was to kill the enemy, and that is what they did, and would have done even if the terms were switched.