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Marta_Voda [28]
3 years ago
8

Write an exponential function y= ab^x for a graph that includes (1,15) and (0,6)

Mathematics
2 answers:
slava [35]3 years ago
8 0
<span>basically you write an exponential function for y=ab^x for a graph that includes (1,15) and (0,6)
then using (0,6) you get: 6 = ab^0 
and using (1,15) you get 15 = ab^1

Equations:
a = 6
ab = 15
So, b = 15/6 = 5/2
Equation:
y = 6(5/2)^x</span>
lys-0071 [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The required exponential function is y=6(\frac{5}{2})^x.

Step-by-step explanation:

The general exponential function is

y=ab^x

It is given that graph includes (1,15) and (0,6). It means the equation must be satisfied by these points.

15=ab^1              .... (1)

6=ab^0

6=a

The value of a is 6. Put this value in equation (1).

15=(6)b

Divide both sides by 6.

\frac{15}{6}=b

\frac{5}{2}=b

The value of b is \frac{5}{2}.

Put a=6 and b=\frac{5}{2} in the general exponential function.

y=6(\frac{5}{2})^x

Therefore the required exponential function is y=6(\frac{5}{2})^x.

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Answer:

2^{2} + (2\sqrt{3}) ^{2} = 4 + 4 * 3 = 16 = 4^{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagorean Theorem states that the two shorter sides of a right triangle squared and added together will equal the longest side (hypotenuse) of the right triangle squared. The longest side of this right triangle is 4, 4 squared is 16. The two shorter sides of the right triangle are 2 and 2\sqrt{3}, squared individually would be 4 and 12, and added together they also equal 16. These sides are a valid input for the Pythagorean Theorem, so these three sides are the sides of a right triangle. 2 and 2\sqrt{3} being the legs of the right triangle, and 4 being the hypotenuse.

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3 years ago
A manufactured lot of buggy whips has 20 items, of which 5 are defective. A random sample of 5 items is chosen to be inspected.
dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

a. 39.55%

b. 44.02%

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following data:

n = 5

x = 1

p = 5/20 = 0.25

to. If the sampling is done with replacement.

We apply the binomial distribution formula, which is as follows:

P = nCx * (p ^ x) * ((1-p) ^ (n-x))

Where nCx, is a combination, and is equal to:

nCx = n! / x! * (n-x)!

replacing we have:

5C1 = 5! / 1! * 4! = 5

replacing in the main formula:

P = 5 * (0.25 ^ 1) * ((1- 0.25) ^ (5-1))

P = 0.3955

that is, without replacing the probability is 39.55%

b. if the sampling is done without replacement.

Here it is a little different from the previous one, but what you should do is calculate three cases,

the first was the one at point a, when n = 5 and x = 1

5C1 = 5! / 1! * 4! = 5

the second is when n = 20 and x = 5, this is all possible scenarios.

20C5 = 20! / 5! * 15! = 15504

and the third is when n = 15 (20-5) and x = 4 (5-1), which corresponds to the cases when none were damaged

15C4 = 15! / 4! * 11! = 1365

In the end, it would be:

P = (5C1 * 15C4) / 20C5

Replacing:

P = 5 * 1365/15504

P = 0.4402

Which means that without replacing the probability is 44.02%

7 0
3 years ago
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