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4vir4ik [10]
3 years ago
12

The approved time-phased budget against which project execution is compared and deviations are measured for management control i

s known as:
Business
1 answer:
Alex17521 [72]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is a cost performance baseline


I hope that helped
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You have determined the following data for a given bond: Real risk-free rate (r*) = 3%; inflation premium = 8%; default risk pre
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer: 16%

Explanation:

Interest rate on long term treasury securities is calculated below using following formula:

Interest rate = Real risk-free rate + inflation premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium + maturity risk premium

= 3% + 8% + 2% + 2% + 1%

= 16%

Interest rate on long term treasury securities is 16%.

4 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
What rapidly changing factor has led to the social age in business?
Nina [5.8K]

Answer:

Communication technology

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
On November 7, Mura Company borrows $370,000 cash by signing a 90-day, 8%, $370,000 note payable. 1. Compute the accrued interes
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

At 31 December, the Interest for 54 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $17,740 (debit)

Note Payable $17,740 (credit)

On payment February 5, the Interest expense will be capitalized in the Note Payable as follows :

Note Payable $407,473 (debit)

Cash $407,473 (credit)

Explanation:

AT, November 7, When Mura Company borrows the money :

Cash $370,000 (debit)

Note Payable $370,000  (credit)

At 31 December, the Interest for 54 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $17,740 (debit)

Note Payable $17,740 (credit)

Interest expense calculation = $370,000 × 8% × 54/90

                                                = $17,740

At February 5, the interest for 60 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $19,733 (debit)

Note Payable $19,733 (credit)

Interest expense calculation = $370,000 × 8% × 60/90

                                                = $19,733

On payment February 5, the Interest expense will be capitalized in the Note Payable as follows :

Note Payable $407,473 (debit)

Cash $407,473 (credit)

Note Payable Calculation = $370,000 + $19,733 + $17,740

                                              $407,473

3 0
3 years ago
On January 1, $5,000,000, 10-year, 10% bonds were issued at $5,200,000. Interest is paid annually each January 1. The straight-l
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

$20,000 premium is amortized at the end of the first year.

Explanation:

Straight line amortization:

premium amortized = Premium / number of years

                                 = ($5,200,000 - $5,000,000) / 10 years

                                 = $200,000 premium / 10 years

                                 = $20,000

Therefore, $20,000 premium is amortized at the end of the first year.

3 0
3 years ago
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