The answer is Contribution Margin.
What is break-even point?
A transaction or investment's breakeven point (break-even price) is established by comparing the market price of an asset to its initial cost; the breakeven point is reached when the two prices are equal. In business accounting, the breakeven point is calculated by dividing the entire fixed costs of production by the revenue per unit less the variable costs per unit. Those expenses that don't fluctuate regardless of how many units are sold are referred to in this context as fixed costs. The production level at which all sales for a product net the same amount of money as all expenses is known as the breakeven point.
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Answer:
The amount of cash paid to suppliers of merchandise during the reporting period is $31
Explanation:
Inventory beginning balance is $90, ending balance is $93
Account payables beginning balance is $14, ending balance is $16
Cost of goods sold is $30
Using T accounts: Beginning Inventory + Purchases - Ending Inventory = Cost of Goods Sold.
Therefore Purchases = Cost of Sales - Beginning Inventory + Ending Inventory
Purchases = 30-90+93 = 33
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In the Accounts Payable Account
Opening balance and Credit purchases are on the credit side, while payment to suppliers and closing balance are on the debit side
Therefore: Opening balance + Purchases during the period = Payments during the period + closing balance.
Hence: 14+33= payments during the period + 16
Payments during the period = 14+33 - 16 = $31
Answer:
$19,713 unfavorable
Explanation:
Direct labor efficiency variance tells us that how the direct labor is used to product the standard numbers of share. It is calculate by multiplying the difference of actual labor hours and standard labor hours with standard rate.
Formula for the efficiency variance
Direct labor efficiency variance = (Actual Hours - Standard Hours ) x Standard Rate
Direct labor efficiency variance = (3,500 - (0.25x5,700 ) x $9.5
Direct labor efficiency variance = (3500 - 1425 ) x $9.5
Direct labor efficiency variance = $19,713 unfavorable
As the actual Labor hours spent is higher than the estimated so, the efficiency variance id unfavorable.
Answer: $615,810
Explanation:
The Book Value of the Asset at the end of 4 years will be;
= Cost of equipment - Accumulated Depreciation
= 3,250,000 - ( 3,250,000 * ( 20% + 32% + 19.20% + 11.52%))
= 3,250,000 - 2,688,400
= $561,600
The Equipment will be sold at $645,000 meaning a gain is made
= 645,000 - 561,600
= $83,400
Tax to be paid is;
= 83,400 * 0.35
= $29,190
After-tax salvage value of the equipment = Sales Price - Tax
= 645,000 - 29,190
= $615,810
The idea that "the invisible hand" of competition sets prices and determines quantities produced in a market economy was the principal idea of B.) ADAM SMITH.
Invisible hand is said to be the metaphor Adam Smith used in referring to unintended social benefits that resulted from individual's actions.
