Answer:
16.7 percentage
Explanation:
bond price = $1000 - $100 = $900
fixed amount / bond price * 100 = IR
(150/900) * 100 = 16.7%
The reason for this equation is that interest rate is the amount a lender charges for the use of assets expressed as a percentage of the principal.
originally the price if the bond is $1000 which later falls by $100, so that leaves us to a $900 bond rate.
The interest rate is typically noted on a annual basis known as the annual percentage rate (APR).
Answer:
The correct answer is $9,850,000
Explanation:
The Enterprise fund which will be reported, total other financing sources of the amount is computed as:
= Face Value - Cost of issuance
where
Face Value is $10,000,000
Cost of issuance is $150,000
Putting the values above:
= $10,000,000 - $150,000
= $9,850,000
Note: Premium will not be considered as it is asked for when the bonds are issued.
Answer:
cash 967,707 debit
premium on BP 67,707 credit
Bnds Payable 900,000 credit
interest expense 58062.42 debit
premium on BP 437.58 debit
cash 58500 credit
Explanation:
procceds 967,707
face value 900,000
premium on bonds payable 67,707
<em><u>first interest payment</u></em>
carrying value x market rate
967,707 x 0.06 = 58062.42
then cash outlay
face valeu x bond rate
900,000 x 0.065 = 58,500
the difference will be the amortization
Answer:
The differences between US GAAP and IFRS pose an extra cost because international corporations must prepare two separate accounting statements. But besides that, other potential risks include paying higher taxes than what the companies should pay int their home countries and the uncertainty generated by changing rules.
Not only do current tax rates affect potential investments, e.g. currently companies in the US pay relatively low corporate taxes (Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017) but these benefits end on 2025. But also different methods for valuating physical assets and R&D costs can represent higher than expected taxes. E.g. depending on a company's needs, it may be beneficial to expense all R&D costs right away, or maybe it would be better to capitalize some of them after technical feasibility is achieved (IFRS).
The main advantage of having uniform rules (e.g. UCC) is that all the companies know exactly what to expect and how to act. Certainty decreases risk, and less risk reduces costs.
Explanation:
In the US, the vast majority of firms use US GAAP as their accounting method, but around the world the IFRS method is used.
Physical asset valuation is the process of determining the value of your physical assets including P, P & E, and also inventories.
- When valuing inventories IFRS uses FIFO, while US GAAP allows FIFO, LIFO or weighted average costing methods. US GAAP also values inventory at lesser of cost or market value, while IFRS values inventory at lesser of cost or net realizable value.
- US GAAP uses the cost method to determine the historic cost of an asset, while IFRS uses basically the same method but does not include all the costs of location of the assets (e.g. cost of removing or clearing a facility).
- US GAAP recognizes non-monetary exchanges while IFRS doesn't.
- IFRS also allows the cost of asset to be revalued, which can result in unrealized gains or losses. The US GAAP only considers historic costs.
- There are also other minor differences regarding depreciation, disposals and impairment rules.
Research and development must be expensed right away under US GAAP, while IFRS basically requires the same, it allows some capitalization of development expenditures if certain criteria is met (technical feasibility is achieved).
