Answer:
it will be a net loss of 560,000
It is better to produce at a loss of 60,000 than a loss of 620,000
That's because, the Division cover a good portion of their allocate fixed cost.
Explanation:
The fixed expense are allocate cost. Are unavoidable cost It will remain even if the division is dropped.
The sales and variable cost will be zero.
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&Continued&Discontinued&Differential\\Sales&1,200,000&0&-1,200,000\\Variable&-640,000&0&640,000\\Allocate cost&-620,000&-620,000&0\\Result&-60,000&-620,000&-560,000\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D%26Continued%26Discontinued%26Differential%5C%5CSales%261%2C200%2C000%260%26-1%2C200%2C000%5C%5CVariable%26-640%2C000%260%26640%2C000%5C%5CAllocate%20cost%26-620%2C000%26-620%2C000%260%5C%5CResult%26-60%2C000%26-620%2C000%26-560%2C000%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
After posting the values, we calculate the differential income.
In this case it will be a loss for 560,000
Answer:
See attached file
Explanation:
To obtain sales, the quantity sold is multiplied by the sale price in each of the regions.
Variable costs are multiplied by each of the quantities
Fixed costs are distributed according to what the company determined
From the difference between sales and variable costs we get the Contribution Margin. If the fixed costs are subtracted, the Segment Margin of each sector is obtained. Subtracting fixed costs that cannot be distributed, gives the Net Income.
The Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 800,000 was distributed between 40.000 units (produced units) not 35.000 (sold units)
Answer:
e.nine minutes.
Explanation:
A manager in an organization has a lot of responsibilities.There are a lot of employees working under the manager.So a manager is a very busy person.So they have to take care of a lot of things.
Hence Managers shifts gears very quickly so the average time spent on one activity is around nine minutes.
Answer:
P = $1790.01
Explanation:
Given data:
Borrowed money = $11,000
Number of installment = 10
Annual rate of interest = 10%


P = $627.45
PV of annuity is given as:
![PV of annuity = P*[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{ r}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV%20of%20annuity%20%3D%20P%2A%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%29%7D%7B%20r%7D%5D)
P - Periodic payment
r - rate per period
n - number of periods
![11,000 = P*[\frac{(1-(1+0.1)^{-10})}{0.1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=11%2C000%20%3D%20P%2A%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2B0.1%29%5E%7B-10%7D%29%7D%7B0.1%7D%5D)
P = $1790.01