Answer:
The correct answer is $4,500.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Uncollectible Account receivable = $5,000
Account receivable balance = $100,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts = $500
Credit sales = $150,000
So, we can calculate the bad debt expense by using following formula:
Bad debt expense = Uncollectible Account receivable - Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
by putting the value, we get
Bad debt expense = $5,000 - $500
= $4,500.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The set of activities done by a company for marketing its product is called marketing mix. These are the factors that affect the marketing results of the entity and should be considered thoroughly while decision making.
Seven elements of marketing mix are :-
1. Product
2. Price
3. Place
4. Promotion
5. Packaging
6. Positioning
7. People
THUS, DISTRIBUTION IS NOT ITS PART.
Answer:
![C'(y) = 50 -\frac{3900000}{y^2}=0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%27%28y%29%20%3D%2050%20-%5Cfrac%7B3900000%7D%7By%5E2%7D%3D0%20)
And we can solve for y and we got:
![y = \sqrt{\frac{3900000}{50}}= 279.285](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20y%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%7B%5Cfrac%7B3900000%7D%7B50%7D%7D%3D%20279.285)
And using condition (1) we can solve for x and we got:
![x= \frac{60000}{279.285}= 214.834](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20x%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B60000%7D%7B279.285%7D%3D%20214.834)
So then the minimum cost for this case would be:
![C = 50*279.285 + 65*214.834 = 27928.49](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%20%3D%2050%2A279.285%20%2B%2065%2A214.834%20%3D%2027928.49)
Explanation:
For this case the graph attached illustrate the problem for this case
We know that the total area is 60000, so then we have:
![xy = 60000](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20xy%20%3D%2060000)
If we solve for x we got:
(1)
Now we can define the cost function like this:
![C = 2*(25)*y + 25 x +40 x](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%20%3D%202%2A%2825%29%2Ay%20%2B%2025%20x%20%2B40%20x)
![C(x,y) = 50 y + 65 x](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%28x%2Cy%29%20%3D%2050%20y%20%2B%2065%20x)
We can use the condition (1) and if we replace in the cost function we have:
![C(y) = 50 y + 65(\frac{60000}{y})](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%28y%29%20%3D%2050%20y%20%2B%2065%28%5Cfrac%7B60000%7D%7By%7D%29)
Since we need to minimize the cost, we can derivate the function in terms of y and we got:
![C'(y) = 50 -\frac{3900000}{y^2}=0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%27%28y%29%20%3D%2050%20-%5Cfrac%7B3900000%7D%7By%5E2%7D%3D0%20)
And we can solve for y and we got:
![y = \sqrt{\frac{3900000}{50}}= 279.285](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20y%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%7B%5Cfrac%7B3900000%7D%7B50%7D%7D%3D%20279.285)
And using condition (1) we can solve for x and we got:
![x= \frac{60000}{279.285}= 214.834](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20x%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B60000%7D%7B279.285%7D%3D%20214.834)
So then the minimum cost for this case would be:
![C = 50*279.285 + 65*214.834 = 27928.49](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%20%3D%2050%2A279.285%20%2B%2065%2A214.834%20%3D%2027928.49)
20% down will be $50,000 so the balance will be $200,000 to take out a mortgage for. The higher the down payment the lower the mortgage required and lower payments would ensue also. Also, once one has a mortgage it ie wise to pay it by the week to reduce the interest. Over time this practice makes a difference.
Answer:
Cost-plus-fixed-fee pricing
Explanation:
Cost-plus-fixed-fee pricing is when the contractor specifies the expenses of a project and a fixed fee for the services that provides which allows the contractor to earn a profit. In this type of pricing, the overall cost of the project is determined at the end and all the authorized costs are paid to the contractor in full. According to this, the answer is that these contractors use cost-plus-fixed-fee pricing to compensate them for any cost overruns.