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Andrej [43]
4 years ago
7

If the MPC is 0.80 and there are no crowding-out or accelerator effects, then an initial increase in aggregate demand of $100 bi

llion will eventually shift the aggregate demand curve to the right by
Business
1 answer:
expeople1 [14]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$500 billion

Explanation:

Given that,

Marginal propensity to consume, MPC = 0.80

There are no crowding-out or accelerator effects.

Initial increase in an aggregate demand = $100 billion

Now, the magnitude of the rightward shift in the aggregate demand curve is determined by calculating the spending multiplier.

Spending multiplier:

= 1 ÷ (1 - MPC)

= 1 ÷ (1 - 0.8)

= 1 ÷ 0.2

= 5

Therefore, the overall change in the aggregate demand is calculated as follows:

= Initial increase in the aggregate demand × Spending multiplier

= $100 billion × 5

= $500 billion

Hence, the aggregate demand curve will eventually shift rightwards by $500 billion.

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Norwegian Cruise Lines controls the availability of prices by offering deals to specific groups of buyers based on all of the fo
Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:D( competition)

Explanation:

Competition can not really determine the availability of prices by offering deals to specific buyer because his competitor might not be more than his company price.

5 0
4 years ago
Is the sole shareholder of a corporation. for the past five years, has reported little or no taxable income as a result?
OleMash [197]

For the past five years, Logan has reported little to no taxable income because he paid Graham a salary of $500,000 a year.

Multiply that result by the number of shares held for each individual shareholder. Complete Appendix K, the form companies must submit to list the amount of income attributable to each shareholder for the tax year.

The gross S Corporation income (or loss) reported in Appendix E is included in the income from rentals, royalties, partnerships, S Corporations, trusts, etc. section of an individual's Form 1040.

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5 0
2 years ago
Kendra, Cogley, and Mei share income and loss in a 3:2:1 ratio. The partners have decided to liquidate their partnership. On the
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

a. Inventory is sold for $600,000.

gain on sale of inventory = $600,000 - $537,200 = $62,800

allocation of gain:

Kendra 1/2 x $62,800 = $31,400

Cogley 1/3 x $62,800 = $20,933

Mei 1/6 x $62,800 = $10,467

Dr Cash 600,000

   Cr Inventory 537,200

   Cr Gain on sale of inventory 62,800

Dr Gain on sale of inventory 62,800

   Cr Kendra, capital 31,400

    Cr Cogley, capital 20,933

    Cr Mei, capital 10,467

Dr Accounts payable 245,500

    Cr Cash 245,500

Dr Kendra, capital 124,400

Dr Cogley, capital 233,433

Dr Mei, capital 177,467

    Cr Cash 535,300

b. Inventory is sold for $500,000.

loss on sale of inventory = $500,000 - $537,200 = -$37,200

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $37,200 = $18,600

Cogley 1/3 x $37,200 = $12,400

Mei 1/6 x $37,200 = $6,200

Dr Cash 500,000

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 37,200

   Cr Inventory 537,200

Dr Kendra, capital 18,600

Dr Cogley, capital 12,400

Dr Mei, capital 6,200

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 37,200

Dr Accounts payable 245,500

    Cr Cash 245,500

Dr Kendra, capital 74,400

Dr Cogley, capital 200,100

Dr Mei, capital 160,800

    Cr Cash 435,300

c. Inventory is sold for $320,000 and any partners with capital deficits pay in the amount of their deficits.

loss on sale of inventory = $320,000 - $537,200 = -$217,200

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $217,200 = $108,600

Cogley 1/3 x $217,200 = $72,400

Mei 1/6 x $217,200 = $36,200

Dr Cash 320,000

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 217,200

    Cr Inventory 537,200

Dr Kendra, capital 108,600

Dr Cogley, capital 72,400

Dr Mei, capital 36,200

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 217,200

Dr Cash 15,600

    Cr Kendra, capital 15,600

Dr Accounts payable 245,500

    Cr Cash 245,500

Dr Cogley, capital 140,100

Dr Mei, capital 130,800

    Cr Cash 270,900

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ehidna [41]

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b. The reasons for net loss but positive cash flow from operations are

Change in current assets, liabilities, depreciation

ANd, the reasons for having a difference is that the operating activities records the cash payment & cash receipt related to operating activities and the rest of things would be ignored

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