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Inga [223]
3 years ago
14

WHAT IF THE FACTS WERE DIFFERENT? Assume that McDonald's had a pattern of accepting late payments and there was no agreement, "t

hat acceptance would not constitute a waiver of any subsequent breach". 1. Could C.B. Management, Inc., prevail on its claim? 2. C.B. Management, Inc. would be more likely to prevail if it could show that McDonald's terminated the franchise.
Business
1 answer:
OLEGan [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1. Could C.B. Management, Inc., prevail on its claim?

  • probably it could since it was a common practice for McDonald's

2. C.B. Management, Inc. would be more likely to prevail if it could show that McDonald's terminated the franchise.

  • arbitrarily, since it accepted other late payments from other franchisees.

Explanation:

In the original question, C.B. Management had a franchise contract with McDonald's but it continuously paid their franchise fees late. At the beginning McDonld's accepted the late fees but then it decided it wouldn't accept them anymore. Since late fees represented a breach of the franchise contract, McDonald's decided to terminate its contract with C.B. Management. In the first scenario, McDonald's was entitled to terminate the contract due to C.B. Management's continuous breaches.

What changes here, is that McDonald's generally accepts late payments from other franchisees and there acceptance of prior late fees meant that the original contract clause was invalid.

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diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

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Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

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where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

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Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

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=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

6 0
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Actual Static Budget Production 54,000 units 60,000 units Machine-hours 985 hours 1,800 hours Fixed overhead costs for September
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

D.$54,000

Explanation:

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Using a budget is a good way to what?
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kaheart [24]

Answer:

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