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garik1379 [7]
3 years ago
11

Suppose a 15-minute call costs $5.26, and a 30-minute call costs $10.24. Find a formula relating time (in minutes) and cost (in

dollars).
How do you do this???
Mathematics
1 answer:
musickatia [10]3 years ago
4 0
If 15 minutes is $5.26 then 1 minute is 35¢ so the equation is y=.35t. But 30 minutes is $10.24 so 1 minute would be 34¢ so the equation would be y=.34t.
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5y^2+5−4−4y^2+5y^2−4x^3 −1
vredina [299]

Answer:

\boxed{ \bold{ \huge{ \boxed{ \sf{4 {x}^{3}  + 6 {y}^{2} }}}}}

Step-by-step explanation:

\sf{5 {y }^{2}  + 5 - 4 - 4 {y}^{2}  + 5 {y}^{2}  - 4 {x}^{3}  - 1}

Collect like terms

⇒\sf{ 4 {x}^{3}  + 5 {y}^{2}  - 4 {y}^{2}  + 5 {y}^{2}  + 5 - 4 - 1}

⇒\sf{4 {x}^{3}  +  {y}^{2}  + 5 {y}^{2}  + 5 - 4 - 1}

⇒\sf{4 {x}^{3}  + 6 {y}^{2}  + 5 - 4 - 1}

Calculate

⇒\sf{4 {x}^{3}  + 6 {y}^{2}  + 1 - 1}

⇒\sf{4 {x}^{3}  + 6 {y}^{2} }

Hope I helped!

Best regards! :D

6 0
3 years ago
identify the equation that does not belong with the other three. explain your reasoning. 6+x=9 | 15= x+12 | x+9 =11 | 7+x=10
Katena32 [7]
Answer is x+9=11

6+x=9
x=3

15=x+12
x=3

7+x=10
x=3

x+9=11
x=2

So x+9=11 has a different x value than the rest of the equations. So it doesn't belong with the other three.
6 0
3 years ago
PLZ I NEED HELP!!! THIS IS TIMED!!!! PLZ HELP ME!
wel

Answer:

it is b

Step-by-step explanation:

hope i helped

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Julie gives 7 pieces of candy to each of her friends. If Julie gives all of her candy away, which amount of candy could have bee
True [87]
To find the answer to this problem, you just need to figure out which total amount of candy is divisible by 7.

161/7=23
<span>162/7=23.1428571429
</span>145/7=<span>20.7142857143
128/7=</span><span>18.2857142857

Obviously, Julie cannot give a fraction of an amount of candy to someone.  So that rules out that she had 162, 145, or 128 pieces of candy.  

The only amount of candies that Julie could have that is divisible by 7 is 161 candies, which means that 161 is your answer.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ln(1/e^2) without calculator
castortr0y [4]
Once you remember the definition of a log, the answer to this question will literally fall out of your pencil.

First, ' Ln ' means 'natural log' ... logs to the base of ' e '.

Definition of the natural log of a number:
In order to get the number, what power do I have to raise ' e ' to ?

OK.  What power do you have to raise ' e ' to in order to get  1/e²  ?

Isn't  1/e²  the same thing as  e⁻²  ?

So, in order to get  1/e² , you have to raise ' e ' to the  -2  power .

In math-speak:    Ln(1/e²) = <em><u>-2</u></em> .
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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