Answer:
<em>The question option are:</em>
<em>1. For the current quarter what is the economy's income?
</em>
<em>2. For the current quarter, what is the economy's expenditure?
</em>
<em>3. In an economy, how are income and expenditure related?</em>
1. The economy's income for the current year is $450 because there is only one transaction that take place in the year worth of $450
2. The economy's expenditure of the current year is $450 because each transaction has two side. One is the Income, the other is Expenditure. The income is converted to expenditure.
3. In an economy, income and expenditure are related and they are equal. Each transaction has two side. One is the Income, the other is Expenditure. The income is converted to expenditure.
Answer:
Dr Bond investment $50,000
Cr cash $50,000
Dr cash $1,250
Cr interest revenue $1,250
Dr cash $50,000
cr bond investment $50,000
Explanation:
On July 1 2019,Red company would have parted with cash of $50,000 which means that cash account should be credited with $50,000 while bond investment account is debited with same amount
On receipt of first interest payment of $1,250 (5%*$50,000*1/2) cash is debited with $1,250 while interest revenue is credited with the same amount.
Upon receipt of face value at redemption,the journal entry would be opposite of the initial one
The method of pay that would result in the most earnings is method 1.
<h3>What method of pay would result in the most earnings?</h3>
In order to determine which method of pay would yield the highest earnings, the total amount that would be earned using each method of pay has to be determined.
Method A = 7.5% x $40,000 = $3000
Method B = $1600 + (2.5% x $40,000) = $2,600
Method C = (5% x $30,000) + (6% x 10,000) = $2,100
Method D = (4% x $25,000) + (8% x $15,000) = $2,200
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Answer: $700,000
Explanation: Retained earnings is the amount of earnings left with the company after paying for dividends of common stockholders.
Retained earnings break even can be computed as follows :-

where,
retained earnings = net income (1- payout ratio)
= $525,000 (1 - 60%)
= $210,000
therefore,

=$700,000
Answer:
$80,000
Explanation:
Calculation to determine what the amount of variable administrative cost to allocate to Department 1 would be
Variable administrative cost to allocate to Department 1=(40,000 ÷100,000) x $200,000
Variable administrative cost to allocate to Department 1=0.4×$200,000
Variable administrative cost to allocate to Department 1= $80,000
Therefore The Variable administrative cost to allocate to Department 1 would be $80,000