1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Alenkasestr [34]
4 years ago
7

How have social norms changed in America since the decade of the '60s?

History
1 answer:
lord [1]4 years ago
7 0
The most visible changes are connected to political correctness and feminism. The 60s had neither the one nor the other. Since then feminism has de validated the traditional female life concept and declared the male concept of business the only way to obtain luck on earth. 

<span>The de validation of speech is a more apalling catastrophe. PC has sent speech through some kind of "equalizer", condemning everyone to utter warm and friendly words even being absolutely hostile to a subject. A fascist is still a fascist but today speaks like a Buddhist monk. This way he is not identifiable anymore. PC has destroyed a valuable tool which was suitable to express the strongest emotions. Today a CATERPILLAR Wheel has to be changed with a tweezers. The tool is dead.</span>
You might be interested in
10.What things were done to promote segregation and limit the rights of African Americans?
Sphinxa [80]
Diffrent places they had to go or diffrent pubs

5 0
3 years ago
Why did many slaves hope that the British would win the Revolutionary War?
scoundrel [369]
At least 10 to 15 black soldiers, including some slaves, fought against the British at the battles of Lexington and Bunker Hill.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was Roger Williams's problem with the Puritans in America?
Alex777 [14]
He did not agree with punishing people for breaking the rules of the church.

Hope this helps!
7 0
3 years ago
Is Pakistan a poor country?
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

yes.

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
To protect its interests in the Middle East, in 1939, Great Britain declared that it would
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

Correct answer is C.) restrict the number of Jews immigrating to Palestine.

Explanation:

Options A and B are not correct because no one was to be forced to leave the place of their residence according to the documents that British government proposed.

Option C is correct as according to White Paper that was presented by the government it was said that number of Jews who will immigrate will be restricted after 75 000 Jews immigrate to Palestine.

Option D is also not correct as this was done by United Nations in 1947.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • The two most important new technologies that enabled the development of the skyscraper were
    8·1 answer
  • How did the aftermath of the war in europe differ from the aftermath of the war in japan?
    6·1 answer
  • How did we get the electoral
    14·1 answer
  • Communist nation NOT part of Warsaw Pact
    5·1 answer
  • What was the three-fifths compromise?
    14·1 answer
  • George Washington's belief political parties
    5·2 answers
  • When you make a choice the experience from what would have been your second option is called
    13·2 answers
  • According to most white people in the 1840s, what would happen if siavery were
    14·1 answer
  • How does Islam influence government and law in fundamentalist Muslim nations
    14·1 answer
  • What was the capital city of the Inca Empire?<br> O Tenochtitlán<br> O Cuzco<br> O Quito<br> O Talco
    10·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!