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Rzqust [24]
3 years ago
12

Compute the future value of $2,000 compounded annually for 20 years at 6 percent. (Do not round intermediate calculations and ro

und your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. Compute the future value of $2,000 compounded annually for 15 years at 9 percent. (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Business
1 answer:
Vinvika [58]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A) FV= 6414.27

B) FV=2000*(1.09^15)= 7284.97

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

A) Present value=  $2,000

Compounded annually for 20 years at 6 percent.

n= 20

i=0.06

B) Present value= $2,000

Compounded annually for 15 years at 9 percent.

n=15

i= 0.09

To calculate the Final Value we need to use the following formula:

FV= Present value*(1+interest rate)^n

A) FV= 2000*(1.06^20)

FV= 6414.27

B) FV=2000*(1.09^15)= 7284.97

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Answer and Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Total Years = 5, semiannually = 5 × 2 = 10

Rate = 7% yearly, semiannually rate = 7 ÷ 2 = 3.5%  

Journal Entries

On Jan 1

Cash A/c           Dr. $9,594,415

Discount on bonds payable A/c        Dr. $405,585

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(Being the issuance of bond payable is recorded)

Discount value of issued bonds = $10,000,000 - $9,594,415 = $405,585

2).

On Jun

Interest expenses A/c             Dr. $390,559

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 To Cash A/c($10,000,0000 × 3.5%)     $350,000

(Being the payment of first semiannual interest is recorded)

3).  

On Dec 31

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Discount on bonds payable A/c($405,585*10/100)     Dr.$40,559

 To Cash A/c($10,000,000*3.5/100)      $350,000

(Being the payment of second semiannual interest is recorded)

b). Bond Interest Expense Amount for First Year

= Interest Expenses + Amortized Discount

= $700,000 + $81,117

= $781,117

Interest expenses = $350,000 + $350,000 = $700,000

Amortized Discount = $40,559 + $40,559 = $81,117

c).The Company issued the bonds at $9,594,415 for the face amount of $10,000,000 because bonds issued at discount for $405,585 as the coupon rate is less than the market interest.  

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fredd [130]

Answer:

0.25

Explanation:

Given :

The $\text{consumers value}$ the non defective cars = $\$ 10,000$

We will consider all the defective $\text{ cars are used cars}$ only. This is only because the value of the used car is $ 2000 and it is lower than the price of a good car that is $10,000. Thus only defective cars are being sold as the old cars.

For a risk neutral customer, the price that he is ready to give for the new car is the reservation price of a non defective car. It means that (the amount of $ 8000 is the value of the good car x chances of getting a good car) +( the value of the bad car x chances of getting a bad car).

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Thus the value of :

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