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3 years ago

What is 28 percent of 486

Mathematics

2 answers:

Dimas [21]3 years ago

5 0

136.08 hope this helps

dangina [55]3 years ago

3 0

The answer to you're question would be 136.08<span />

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What is the product of 379 and 8

Tanya [424]

The product of 379 and 8 is 3032, that other answer was wrong they answered with the sum (addition) not the product (multiplication)

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please help, i will give brainliest to whos first

Wittaler [7]

Thanks with all of my heart!

ik im not first but have a lovely day! u are really kind! never forget that!

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3 years ago

Travelers who fail to cancel their hotel reservations when they have no intention of showing up are commonly referred to as no-s

notsponge [240]

Answer:

a) 0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) 0 is the most likely value for X.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each traveler who made a reservation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they show up, or they do not. The probability of a traveler showing up is independent of other travelers. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

No-show rate of 10%.

This means that $p = 0.1$

Four travelers who have made hotel reservations in this study.

This means that $n = 4$

a) What is the probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows?

This is $P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

$P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.0486 + 0.0036 + 0.0001 = 0.0523$

0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) What is the most likely value for X?

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{4} = 0.6561$

$P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.1)^{1}.(0.9)^{3} = 0.2916$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

X = 0 has the highest probability, which means that 0 is the most likely value for X.

7 0

3 years ago

(Ross, 4.78) A jar contains 4 white and 4 black marbles. We randomly choose 4 marbles. If 2 of them are white and 2 are black, w

KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Jar contains 4 white and 4 black marbles

We randomly select 4 marbles out of which 2 are white and 2 are black

Probability that 2 white and 2 black marbles are selected is

$P=\frac{^4C_2\times ^4C_2}{^8C_4}$

$P=\frac{18}{35}$

The process is continue for n trails until we choose the correct order

i.e. we have to fail in n-1 trails

For exact n selection Probability is given by

$Req.\ Probability=Probability\ of\ failure\ in\ (n-1)\ trials\times Probability\ of\ getting\ exact\ order$

$=\left ( 1-\frac{18}{35}\right )^{n-1}\times \frac{18}{35}$

8 0

3 years ago

Please help me with this :)))

Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

C, 33 1/3%

Step-by-step explanation:

Because there are only two even number that follow this rule: 2<x≥6, and since there are only 6 possible outcomes, the probabilty is 2/6, which is 1/3. In a percent form, this is 100%*2/3, or 33 1/3%.

8 0

3 years ago