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Fiesta28 [93]
3 years ago
12

Find f(1) if f(x)=5^x

Mathematics
1 answer:
dolphi86 [110]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The value of function for x = 1 , y = 5 i.e  f(1) is 5  

Step-by-step explanation:

Given as :

f(x) = 5^{x}

Now from the function the value of y depend on the value of x

So , for x = 1

I.e  f(1) = 5^{1}

Or,  f(1) = 5

Hence The value of function for x = 1 , y = 5 i.e  f(1) is 5   Answer

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When purchasing bulk orders of​ batteries, a toy manufacturer uses this acceptance sampling​ plan: Randomly select and test 56 b
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Answer:

98.1% chance of being accepted

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

sample size,n=56

acceptance condition= at most 2 batteries do not meet specifications

shipment size=7000

battery percentage in shipment that do not meet specification= 1%

Applying binomial distribution

<h3>P(x)=∑ᵇₐ=₀ (n!/a!(n-a)!)p^a (1-p)^(n-a)</h3>

In this formula, a is the acceptable number of defectives;

 n is the sample size; 

p is the fraction of defectives in the population.  

Now putting the value

a= 2

n=56

p=0.01

\frac{56!}{0!\left(56-0\right)!}\left(0.01\right)^0\:\left(1-0.01\right)^{\left(56-0\right)} + \frac{56!}{1!\left(56-1\right)!}\left(0.01\right)^1\:\left(1-0.01\right)^{\left(56-1\right)} +\:\frac{56!}{2!\left(56-2\right)!}\left(0.01\right)^2\:\left(1-0.01\right)^{\left(56-2\right)}

=0.56960+0.32219+0.08949

After summation, we get 0.981 i.e. a 98.1% chance of being accepted.  As this is such a high chance, we can expect many of the shipments like this to be accepted!

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3 years ago
Complete each statement. An event with a probability of 0 is An event with a probability of 1 is
BaLLatris [955]

Answer:

An event with a probability of 0 is impossible.  

An event with a probability of 1 is certain.

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is typically expressed in terms of a fraction between 0 and 1 where the denominator is the total number of outcomes and the numerator is the number of desired outcomes.  Since probability is expressed as a fraction, if the probability is 0, that means it is impossible, or there is no chance that the event can happen.  However, if the probability is 1, that means that the event is certain to happen and the odds are completely in your favor that the event will happen.  

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The answer is 340-2=338; 338-100=
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CAN SOMEONE WHO KNOWS HOW TO DO THIS PLEASE HELP ME
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Firstly start off with finding the lowest common multiple of 14 and 24. The LCM would be 168. Then you would look at your powers, here you have to choose the highest power of each letter. So 14x^4 and 24x^6 the highest is x^6, then for y it would be y^6 and then for z it would be z^8. So altogether your answer would be 168x^6y^6z^8
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