1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
BARSIC [14]
3 years ago
15

Were Cubans really independent after they accepted the platt amendment

History
1 answer:
SashulF [63]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: No. Historically, the US took advantage of the benefits of this constitutional law to carry out five occupations in Cuba between 1906 and 1933.

As a political “Cuban Independence Provider”, the United States organized an assembly in 1901 to draft the first Cuban constitution. Approval of the text came only after the US Senate secured approval of the so-called Platt Amendment. In general terms, the amendment served as a legal provision for the US to intervene in the country whenever its economic and political interests in the region were threatened.

In addition to making interference power official, the Platt Amendment offered the Americans an area of ​​117 square kilometers to build a military base in Guantanamo Bay.

In 1934, the rise of dictator Fulgencio Batista caused the amendment to be replaced by a trade agreement.

You might be interested in
Why was President Jefferson's inauguration important?
Kisachek [45]

Answer:

because he had to give it in order to become the new president

Explanation:

i just learned this

4 0
3 years ago
What did England and English settlers really want from colonization? National glory? Wealth? Adventure? A solution to social ten
Sergio039 [100]

The English objectives of colonization depended on which sector of the population was defining them.

For the government in general, the advantage of colonization was having more land, and in particular, fertile, productive land. Another advantage of having more land is the fact that land gives extra power. It allows you to have a larger army and navy. It also provides prestige. Finally, wealth in the form of natural resources and trade was a powerful motivator.

Priests, educators and the upper classes involved in charity work believed colonization to be humanitarian. They wanted to educate "savages" so that they could be more cultured, lived in a more civilized way, and followed the "correct" religion.

For many individuals, the main objective of discovering and acquiring new land was adventure, and discovery. Colonization came with exploration, and many scientific advancements were produced due to the enormous territories that the United Kingdom acquired and studied.

As for whether this enterprise was successful in achieving those goals, for the most part it appears like it was. Wealth greatly increased in England, and they did become a superpower. The empire also "reeducated" millions of people around the world and achieved great feats of adventure and discovery.

7 0
3 years ago
What is an example of Seditious speech?
jekas [21]

Answer:

A video that encourages an armed attack on the government

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
HELP PLEASEEE
Dovator [93]

Answer:

b

Explanation:

the floods came through and took the crops.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
True or false
enyata [817]

1.True

"Rival Land Claims. <em><u>England</u></em>, France, and the Netherlands became <u><em>early rivals of Spain</em></u> in colonizing the <u><em>North American</em></u> continent," as stated by https://www.loc.gov/teachers/classroommaterials/connections/parallel-histories-spain/history3.html, which means that england was in fact the first biggest rival in the North American continent.

2.False

"The Treaty of Paris of 1763 ended the French and Indian War/Seven Years' War between Great Britain and France, as well as their respective allies. In the terms of the treaty, <em><u>France gave up all its territories</u></em> in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there," as stated by https://history.state.gov/milestones/1750-1775/treaty-of-paris, meaning <em><u>not just one</u></em><em> </em>colony, but all colonies.

hope this helps! please mark me as brainliest!: )

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What was the British stance toward American Indian tribes in North America in the middle of the 18th century?
    5·1 answer
  • Why is the auto Mobile industry considered an oligopoly?
    11·1 answer
  • The Yuan dynasty was brought down by all of the following EXCEPT
    8·1 answer
  • __________________, Samella Lewis tells us, was the earliest form of servitude in colonial America, before and after the Revolut
    15·1 answer
  • Hurrryyyyy!!!!Why are some of President Lincoln’s ideas considered contradictory?
    8·2 answers
  • The achievement of the desegregation of schools was primarily attained through A) executive order. B) checks and balances. C) Su
    5·1 answer
  • How were the members of the lower house of the legislature in the royal colonies chosen?
    8·1 answer
  • How did industrial workers and farmers react to new economic conditions from 1870 to 1900? Discuss how their reactions were simi
    7·2 answers
  • Which of the following groups
    10·2 answers
  • 2. Which of the following are true of the Atlanta Riot of 1906?
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!