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lesya [120]
3 years ago
12

Nabors Company reported the following current assets and liabilities for December 31 for two recent years: Dec. 31, Current Year

Dec. 31, Previous Year Cash $650 $680 Temporary investments 1,500 1,550 Accounts receivable 700 770 Inventory 1,250 1,400 Accounts payable 2,375 2,000 a. Compute the quick ratio on December 31 of both years. If required, round your answers to one decimal place g
Business
1 answer:
uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1.20 times and 1.50 times

Explanation:

The computation of the quick ratio is shown below:

Quick ratio = Quick assets ÷ Current liabilities

Particulars                        Current year               Last year

Quick Assets:  

Cash                           $650                         $680

Temporary Investments  $1,500                         $1,550

Accounts receivable   $700                         $770

Quick Assets                   $2,850                         $3,000

Current Liabilities  

Accounts Payable            $2,375                         $2,000

Current Liabilities            $2,375                          $2,000

So, Quick Ratio             1.20 times                  1.50 times

By dividing the quick assets with the current liabilities we can get the quick ratio

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O'Brien Ltd.'s outstanding bonds have a $1,000 par value, and they mature in 25 years. Their nominal annual, not semiannual yiel
kiruha [24]

Answer:

7.84%

Explanation:

Given:

Bond's par value (FV) = $1,000

Maturity (nper) = 25 × 2 = 50 periods (since it's semi-annual)

YTM (rate) = 0.0925÷2 = 0.04625 semi annually

Price of bond (PV) = $875

Calculate coupon payment (pmt) using spreadsheet function =pmt(rate,nper,-PV,FV)

PV is negative as it's a cash outflow.

So semi- annual coupon payment is $39.20

Annual coupon payment = 39.2×2 = $78.40

Nominal Coupon rate = Annual coupon payment ÷ Par value

                                     = 78.4 ÷ 1000

                                     = 0.0784 or 7.84%

4 0
3 years ago
A market system tends to restrict business risk to owners and investors. This results in which of the following benefits?
In-s [12.5K]

Answer: d)Firms have to pay more to attract inputs, as these inputs have to share the risk.

Explanation: When the market system tries to put restriction on the business risk to owner and other investors , the firms have to give more payment to attract them to market business.

The chances of risk have have to be shared by both the parties so the owners or investors are going to indulge in the business when they gain some benefit e.g.-more payment.

Other options are incorrect because entrepreneurship will not be encouraged through this process. Incomes will not be distributed equally and neither the prudent risk management will be aimed.Thus, the correct option is option(d).

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following choices is NOT a use for project plans in the workplace?
bixtya [17]
Out of the choices given, the choice that is NOT a use for project plans in the workplace is teacher lesson plans. The correct answer is B. 
6 0
3 years ago
During the first year of Wilkinson Co.'s operations, all purchases were recorded as assets. Store supplies in the amount of $19,
kherson [118]

Answer:

b. increase expenses by $12,900

Explanation:

The final balance of Store Supplies were 19,350, but the actual year-end store supplies inventory were 6,450. That means that from all purchase 12,900 (19,350 – 6450) were used during the accountable year, therefore, those were expenses that should be recognized.

The adjusting entry is: Debit supplies expense for 12,900 and credit supplies for an equal amount.

5 0
3 years ago
An investor agreed to sell a warehouse five years from now to the tenant who currently rents the space. The tenant will continue
salantis [7]

Answer:

Net present value of $168,953.93

Explanation:

We will calculate the present value of the cash flow at the investor's rate of return.

First we have the annuity of 20,000 during 5 years

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C = 20,000

time = 5

rate = 10

20,000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.10)^{-5} }{0.10} = PV\\

PV = 75,815.73539

Then we calculate the present value of the final payment of 150,000

\frac{Nominal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

Nominal = 150,000

rate = 0.1

time = 5

\frac{150,000}{(1 + 0.10)^{5} } = PV

PV = 93,138.198459

<u>We add both together: </u>And get the present value

75,815.73 + 93,138.20 = 168,953.93

4 0
3 years ago
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