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klio [65]
3 years ago
14

A foreign subsidiary of a U.S.-based company has been notified of a loss contingency with an estimated cost ranging between $220

,000 and $250,000 which is probable of resulting in an actual loss. Each dollar amount within this range of cost is equally likely of being the actual outcome. According to U.S. GAAP, what is the amount recognized as a provision for loss contingency?
Business
1 answer:
Marizza181 [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The amount recognized as a provision for loss contingency is $220,000

Explanation:

According to the United States  Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (US GAAP), the provision for loss contingency should be recognized based on the estimated amount. If the range is given then we should report the lower amount or minimum amount

In the given question, two amounts are given i.e $220,000 and $250,000

So $220,000 should be reported

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It is estimated that a first time dui costs roughly ______ once all potential costs are factored in.
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The estimated cost of first time DUI roughly around $1,000 dollars once the potential cost are factored in. The potential cost of a contract is the sum of all the estimated and actual cost of all the fees and reimbursable expenses associated with contact.
4 0
3 years ago
Layla made a snide remark to her colleague that he "looks at the customer like henry ford probably did." what did she mean by su
Anarel [89]
She made a snide remark means she's looking to her colleague in a negative or insulting way. If her action is can be compared with how he looks at the customer like henry ford probably did.

Henry Ford is a well-known businessman. What Layla tried to show is that she collogue should treat well their customer because of the source of their money or company's income. 
8 0
2 years ago
Van Den Borsh Corp. has annual sales of $68,735,000, an average inventory level of $15,012,000, and average accounts receivable
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

The Cash Conversion Cycle is the number of days it takes management of a company to convert its inventory into cash on hand after its business transactions.  It is a useful metric for measuring the effectiveness of management, especially for companies with inventory of goods for sale.

CCC combines the days of inventory outstanding, accounts receivable outstanding, less accounts payable outstanding to obtain a value based on days.

Therefore, the net change in the Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC) in this scenario is the difference between the previous CCC and the new one based on the new proposals.

a) Days Inventory Outstanding or DIO = Average Inventory divided by Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)per day.  Cost of Goods Sold is 85% of sales.

DIO = $15,012,000 / $58,424,750 x 365 days = 94 days

b) Days Sales Outstand or DSO  = Average Accounts Receivable divided by Revenue per day.

DSO = $10,008,000 /$68,735,000 x 365 days = 53 days

c) Days Payable Outstanding or DPO = Average Accounts Payable divided by COGS

DPO = 30 days, as given in the question

d) CCC = DIO + DSO - DPO

CCC = 94 + 53 - 30 = 117 days

Based on the new proposals, the CCC is calculated as follows:

a) DIO = $15,012,000 - $1,946,000 / $58,424,750 x 365 days = 82 days

b) DSO = $10,008,000 - $1,946,000 /$68,735,000 x 365 days = 43 days

c) DPO = 40 days as given.

New CCC = 82+43-40 = 85 days.

Therefore, the net change in the cash conversion cycle is 117 - 85 days, i.e. = 32 days.

Explanation:

The CCC has decreased by 32 days in the new scenario.  This is an improvement worth pursuing by management.

CCC as a measure of management effectiveness is best obtained for many years in order to compare internally.

Another way it serves as a good measure is to compare the company's CCC with its competitors'.

8 0
3 years ago
A higher marginal income tax rate reduces incentives to work because
svetoff [14.1K]
<span>An increase in the marginal income tax rate is likely to decrease the quantity of labor supplied. because the increase in the tax automatically reduces the profit of the firm. the management will always try to compensate their loss by taking necessary reforms or measures. the first and simplest method to reduce the loss is to cut down the expense by reducing the labour involved.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
A futures contract on a 30 day Eurodollar time deposit is currently selling at an IMM index of 95.75 percent. The IMM index on a
kolezko [41]

Answer:

Basis risk for the future contract is 0.65%

Explanation:

Basis risk is the difference in spot price and future price of an hedged asset. It is the difference between the price price of an hedged asset and price of the asset serving as the hedge.

Basis risk = Futures price of contract − Spot price of hedged asset

Basis Risk = Future IMM index - Spot IMM index

Basis risk = 95.75% - 95.10%

Basis risk = 0.65%

5 0
3 years ago
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