Answer:
After tax cost of debt is 4.16%
Explanation:
The yield on the debt which is pre-tax cost of debt can be computed using the rate formula in excel, which is given as follows:
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
where nper is the number of coupon payments,this is calculated as 19*2 since it has a semi-annual coupon interest
pmt is the periodic coupon payment 6.1%/2*$2000=$61
pv is the current price of the bond which is $1933
fv is the face value repayable on redemption $2000
=rate(38,61,-1933,2000)
=3.20%
This is semi-annual yield , annual yield is 3.20%*2=6.40%
After tax cost of debt=6.40%*(1-t)
where t is the tax rate at 35%=0.35
after tax cost of debt=6.40%*(1-0.35)
=4.16%
Answer:
3 1/3 years
Explanation:
Payback period is the time required for the inflows from a project to be equal to the initial outflow for the project. It is a key consideration in capital budgeting. It is usually assumed that the outlay or initial outflow is made in year 0 and the first inflow comes in after a year.
Year Cash outflow Cash inflow Balance
0 ($50,000) - ($50,000)
1 - $15,000 ($35,000)
2 - $15,000 ($20,000)
3 - $15,000 ($5,000)
4 - $15,000 $10,000
5 - $15,000 $25,000
Hence the payback period
= 3 years and 5000/15000 * 12 months
= 3 years 4 months
= 3 1/3 years
Answer:
The answer is 1. quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
When the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied, this makes room for a shortage of goods in the market a day and excess demand. Because of this, the price of existing products increase as a lesser number of goods has to be distributed among many people.
When such scenarios happen, the government can take actions such as importing goods from abroad.
Explanation:
Answer:
8,450 Favorable
; 3,206 Unfavorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance:
= (Standard rate - Actual rate) × Actual hours
= ($3 × 18,731) - $47,743
= 8,450 Favorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance:
= (Standard hour - Actual hour) × Standard rate
= [(11,620 × 1.52) - 18,731] × $3
= (-1,068.6) × $3
= 3,206 Unfavorable
