All categories

3 years ago

What is software piracy?

Business

2 answers:

Dafna11 [192]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

it's B

Explanation:

Allow me to clarify:

according to Google

software piracy is the illegal copying, distribution, or use of software

IceJOKER [234]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

D. unauthorized copying of computer programs

Explanation:

Piracy is done a lot with movies, software, games, etc. Anything sold for a price and is downloaded for free by a consumer is pirated.

You might be interested in

What is a BFOQ? Should BFOQs be allowed?

Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

In employment law, a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) (US) or bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR) (Canada) or genuine occupational qualification (GOQ) (UK) is a quality or an attribute that employers are allowed to consider when making decisions on the hiring and retention of employees—a quality that when considered in other contexts would constitute discrimination and thus be in violation of civil rights employment law. Such qualifications must be listed in the employment offering.[citation needed]

Explanation:

Canada

The law of Canada regarding bona fide occupational requirements was considered in a 1985 Canadian court case involving an employee of the Canadian National Railway, K. S. Bhinder, a Sikh whose religion required that he wear a turban, lost his challenge of the CNR policy that required him to wear a hard hat.[1] In 1990, in deciding another case, the Supreme Court of Canada amended the Bhinder decision: "An employer that has not adopted a policy with respect to accommodation and cannot otherwise satisfy the trier of fact that individual accommodation would result in undue hardship will be required to justify his conduct with respect to the individual complainant. Even then the employer can invoke the BFOQ defence."[2]

United States

In employment discrimination law in the United States, both Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act contain a BFOQ defense. The BFOQ provision of Title VII provides that:

[I]t shall not be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to hire and employ employees, for an employment agency to classify, or refer for employment any individual, for a labor organization to classify its membership or to classify or refer for employment any individual, or for an employer, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee controlling apprenticeship or other training or retraining programs to admit or employ any individual in any such program, on the basis of his religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances where religion, sex, or national origin is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise ...[3]

i'm not able to add the balance of the answer so pls go to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bona_fide_occupational_qualification

5 0

3 years ago

Your company, which has a MARR of 12%, is considering the following two investment alternatives:

mote1985 [20]

Answer:

future worth:

project A 11,615.26

project B 12,139.18‬

It should choose project B as their future value is greater

IRR of project A: 13.54%

We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay

It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.

Explanation:

Project A

We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.

Revenues future value

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\$

C 15,000

time 8

rate 0.12

$15000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{8} -1}{0.12} = FV\\$

FV $184,495.3970

Expenses future value

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\$

C 3,000

time 10

rate 0.12

$3000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{10} -1}{0.12} = FV\\$

FV $52,646.2052

Cost future value

$Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount$

Principal 40,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

$40000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount$

Amount 124,233.93

Net future worth:

-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value

future worth 11,615.26

Project B

cost:

$Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount$

Principal 60,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

$60000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount$

Amount 186,350.89

expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)

revenues

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\$

C 24,000

time 7

rate 0.12

$24000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{7} -1}{0.12} = FV\\$

FV $242,136.2815

TOTAL

242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18‬

Internal rate of return of project A

we write the time and cash flow for each period.

Time Cash flow

0 -40,000

1 -3,000

2 -3,000

3 12,000

4 12,000

5 12,000

6 12,000

7 12,000

8 12,000

9 12,000

10 16,000

IRR 13.54%

Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)

and we got the IRR of the project

6 0

4 years ago

Saddle Inc. has two types of handbags: standard and custom. The controller has decided to use a plantwide overhead rate based on

AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

Saddle Inc.

1. Overhead rate using the traditional (plantwide) approach is:

= $1.84

2. The overhead rates using activity-based costing approach are:

Machining = $72.49

Machine setup = $211.69

3. The difference in allocation between the two approaches:

Differences:

ABC approach $121,808 $178,188 $299,996

Using plantwide $110,400 $189,520 $299,920

Differences $11,408 -$11,332 $76

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Total estimated overhead costs = $300,000

Machining activity = $195,000

Machine setup activity = $105,000

Standard Custom Total

Direct labor costs $60,000 $103,000 $163,000

Machine hours 1,400 1,290 2,690

Setup hours 96 400 496

Overhead rate based on direct labor costs = $1.84 ($300,000/163,000)

Overhead rates using activity-based costing approach:

Machining = $72.49 ($195,000/2,690)

Machine setup = $211.69 ($105,000/496)

Allocation of overhead costs:

Standard Custom Total

Using plantwide $110,400 $189,520 $299,920

Using ABC:

Machining $101,486 $93,512 $194,998

Machine setup 20,322 84,676 104,998

Total costs $121,808 $178,188 $299,996

Differences:

ABC approach $121,808 $178,188 $299,996

Using plantwide $110,400 $189,520 $299,920

Differences $11,408 -$11,332 $76

6 0

3 years ago

On January 1, 2022, the Sheridan Company ledger shows Equipment $49,700 and Accumulated Depreciation $18,280. The depreciation r

Lisa [10]

Answer:

revised annual depreciation will be : 13710

Explanation:

After revision the remaining life of equipment shrank down to 2 years, so the depreciation working will be worked out to adjusted the impact of decreasing of useful life.

As per existing information the depreciation charges are calculated as :

(Cost-Salvage Value)/Useful life= (49700-4000)/10 = 4570

Accumulated Depreciation indicates that 4 years have past by (18280/4570)

now remaining years are 6 which will be reduced to 2 after revision so the new working will be as follows:

Remaining Cost :31420 (49700 -18280)

Salvage Value : 4000

Revised Remaining Useful Life : 2

Revised Calculated Depreciation Annual : (31420-4000)/2 = 13710

It can be further verified through simple math also:

Adding annual depreciation of remaining 2 years : 13710 +13710 =27420

Value available for depreciation after salvage value : 31420 -4000= 27420

3 0

3 years ago

Instructions on how to creae and maintained planned maintenance system schedules using sked appendix

gogolik [260]

Cycle, quarterly, and weekly calendars are the several types of PMS schedules.
The Cycle PMS Schedule shows the Maintenance Requirements (MRs) that are anticipated to be completed over an extended period of time within the ship's maintenance life cycle.
The pound sign symbol ("#") denotes required related maintenance checks that must be conducted within the quarter.
The mark used to denote the end of an MR is the letter "X."
A circled "O" on a Sked requirement denotes a requirement that was either not completed at all or just partially completed after the relevant MRC.
Each 13-week column has black markings at the top to denote underway periods.
Rescheduled MRS is indicated by the O-with-arrow on the schedule mean.

What are the two scheduling techniques for preventive maintenance?

Fixed PMs and floating PMs are two different scheduling techniques for preventive maintenance. Tracking assets and determining when they require inspection, maintenance, calibration, or replacement can be done using either method.

What are the strategies of preventive maintenance scheduling?

These two PM scheduling techniques enable maintenance facilities to precisely identify maintenance triggers, properly maintain assets and effectively utilize maintenance resources. As a result, facilities experience less downtime and improve asset performance for longer.

Learn more about Preventive maintenance: brainly.com/question/14970029

#SPJ4

8 0

1 year ago