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Murrr4er [49]
4 years ago
15

An acceptance is valid if:

Business
1 answer:
Vesnalui [34]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

Acceptance is the term which is defined in the law as the act or a promise on the part of the offeree, that indicating or stating the willingness to be bound by the terms and conditions (legally) mentioned in the offer.

For acceptance to be valid or essential, the requirement is that both the parties had a subjective perspective involved in performing the manifesting their assent.

Therefore, it will be valid is the intent is subjectively manifested.

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CTSOs are not for students who plan to go to collage? (True) or (False)
fredd [130]

Pretty sure it’s false

Hope this helps

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
James operates a monopoly hiking gear store in the woodland trails near his home in the Ozarks. He is currently producing at an
cupoosta [38]

James will need to decrease the marginal revenue to reduce his output.

<h3>What happens when marginal revenue equals marginal cost?</h3>

This is known as an economic equilibrium and there is no economic profit in such equilibrium.

To incur profit now, he will have need to decrease the marginal revenue to reduce his output

Therefore, the Option B is corrrect

Missing options <em>"will increase profits, will decrease marginal revenue, can charge a higher price."</em>

<em />

Read more about marginal revenue

<em>brainly.com/question/10822075</em>

6 0
2 years ago
Suppose that in Country A, a small open economy, there is a positive shock to the propensity of consumers to save: for the same
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

The Current Account Balance of Country A will improve

Explanation:

As for the provided information the citizens of the country will save more as there is a positive shock. Accordingly the citizens shall save more, as the real is not changed the balance due to savings will increase of the current accounts.

This is reflected clearly in statement 1, this is because with the same real rate of interest the balance will increase, of current accounts and as a result it will improve.

4 0
3 years ago
In a job order cost system, direct labor and factory overhead applied are debited to individual jobs. How are these items treate
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

The way the costs of direct labor and factory overhead applied are treated in a process costing system is different from their treatment in a job costing system.  In process costing system, they are debited to the Work in Process account.

The reason for this is that in process costing, costs are not directly attributable to individual jobs.  Instead, costs are accumulated in Work in Process before they are assigned to individual production units.

Explanation:

Job order costing system accumulates costs for individual jobs while a process costing system accumulates costs in the Work in Process account and then allocates the costs to individuals units of production.  The difference depends on the nature of the two systems and how possible it is to identify the costs and attribute them to individual jobs or units.

4 0
3 years ago
Purchasing-power parity theory does not hold at all times because select one:
konstantin123 [22]
The answer would be letter C. This theory tells us that exchange or conversation rates between currencies are in symmetry when their purchasing power is the similar in each of the two republics. In other words, the outlay on a like commodity must be same in both currencies when accounted for exchange rate.
6 0
4 years ago
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