Answer:
$15 trillions
Explanation:
The computation of the GDP is shown below:
GDP = Consumption + Investment + Government purchase + Net exports
where,
Consumption = $10 trillions
Investment = $2.5 trillions
Government purchase = $3 trillions
Net exports = Exports - imports
= $1 trillion - $1.5 trillion
= -$0.5 trillion
So, the GDP would be
= $10 trillions + $2.5 trillions + $3 trillions - $0.5 trillions
= $15 trillions
= 13.5 trillions
Answer:
Occur at least annually
Explanation:
Greater than minimal risk protocols that have been approved must undergo review at least once a year. However IRBs usually specify a shorter period than this for reviews. The principal investigator holds the duty of ensuring that signed consent forms are kept confidential. The IRB are not required to review these confidential forms.
Answer: Heyaa! :)
→ income not spent, or deferred consumption. Methods of saving include putting money aside in
- <em>Checking Account</em>
Offers easy access to your money for your daily needs ←
<em>The main difference between checking and savings accounts is that </em>checking accounts actually used on the daily <em>while</em> savings accounts are primarily for saving money.
Hopefully this helps <em>you !</em>
- Matthew ~~
Answer:
a. 10.04%
b. $82.78
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
a. Expected rate of return or market capitalization = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 5% + 0.72 × (12% - 5%)
= 5% + 0.72 × 7%
= 5% + 5.04%
= 10.04%
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium and the same is applied.
b. Now the intrinsic value would be
= Expected dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
= $5 ÷ (10.04% - 4%)
= $5 ÷ 6.04%
= $82.78
Answer:
D) all of the above
Explanation:
First find the present value for each alternative using PV of perpetual cashflow formula;
PV = CF / rate
CF = 50
If rate= 5%;
PV = 50/0.05 = $1,000
If rate = 2%;
PV = 50/0.02 = $2,500
With these two calculations, we see that;
-the bond price increased by $1,500
-you could sell this bond at a capital gain, meaning you can sell it a higher price that what you bought it for.
-at an interest rate of 2%, the speculative demand for money would increase
Hence , all these choices are correct!
