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Wewaii [24]
4 years ago
11

Bloom Company management predicts that it will incur fixed costs of $160,000 and earn pretax income of $164,000 in the next peri

od. Its expected contribution margin ratio is 25%.Required: 1. Compute the amount of total dollar sales.2. Compute the amount of total variable costs.
Business
1 answer:
Lena [83]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

  1. SALES IN DOLLAR $1,296,000
  2. VARIABLE COST IN DOLLAR $972,000

Explanation:

The process would be to use formulas of the variable costing method to solve for each term:

We are going to use the operating income formula

<em>contribution margin - fixed cost = operating income</em>

<u>Replace </u>with the know values:

<em>contribution margin</em> - 160,000 =  164,000

now <u>solve </u>for the unknow value

contribution = 164,000 + 160,000 = 324,000

Next step we use the contribution margin ratio formula to get the sales:

<em>contribution margin/sales = contribution ratio</em>

<u>Replace </u>with the know values:

324,000/<em>sales </em>= 0.25

now <u>solve </u>for the unknow value:

sales = 324,000/0.25 = 1,296,000

Lastly we use the contribution margin formula to solve for variable cost:

sales - variable cost = contribution margin

<u>Replace </u>with the know values:

1,296,000 -<em> variable cost </em>= 324,000

now <u>solve </u>for the unknow value:

variable cost= 1,296,000 - 324,000 = 972,000

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On January 1, 2010, the balance in Tabor Co.'s Allowance for Bad Debts account was $13,085. During the first 11 months of the ye
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

(a) What was the total of accounts written off during the first 11 months?

bad debts written for the first 11 months = allowance for bad debt accounts January 1 balance + bad debt expense - allowance for bad debt accounts November 30 balance = $13,085 + $21,937 - $9,919 = $25,103

(b) As the result of a comprehensive analysis, it is determined that the December 31, 2010, balance of the Allowance for Bad Debts account should be $9,450. Show the adjustment required in the journal entry format.Allowance for bad debt Debit $Bad debt expenses Credit $

to determine the amount of bad debt expense that must be adjusted, we must subtract the estimated balance in December 31 from the balance in November 30 = $9,919 - $9,450 = $469. Since the November 30 amount is larger, it means that we over estimated our bad debt expense and it must be reduced:

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6 0
3 years ago
Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
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Anton [14]

Answer:

The answer is: C) Consider his continued association with the client.

Explanation:

The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) issues a professional conduct code that regulates their affiliates' activities. According to AICPA's Responsibilities and Public Interest principles, Sam should not continue to work with this client. Sam cannot maintain a professional conduct if he accepts that his client doesn't correct his prior mistakes. If those prior errors persist, then his job will be negatively affected and then it will his responsibility. Accounting is not something static that begins and ends in one period, past records affect present and future records.

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