Answer:
a) 26
b) 26/3
Step-by-step explanation:
a)
1) First, you have to turn 4 1/3 into an improper fraction, so you get 13/3
2) Then you do 13/3 *6/1 =78/3 (so you multiply both numerators and denominators)
3) Lastly, 78/3 can be simplified as 26
b)
1) First you turn both fractions into improper fractions, so you get 13/5 and 10/3
2) Then you do 13/5*10/3 (so you multiply both numerators and denominators)
3) You get 130/15, which can be simplified as 26/3
O.533333333,basically 8 divide by 15
Answer: The answer is 43.
Step-by-step explanation: Given that there is a quart, in which there are 946 millilitres and 22 pints. We are to find how many millilitres are there in a pint.
For that, we just need to divide number of milliliters by the number of pints in the quart.
Let us start as follows -
In 22 pints of the quart = 946 millilitres.
Therefore, in 1 pint of the quart = 946/22 = 43 millilitres.
Answer:
it is a downward
discline
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
b = a + 3.75
Step-by-step explanation:
a = 4b - 15
You are solving for b. Isolate the b. Note the equal sign, what you do to one side, you do to the other. Do the opposite of PEMDAS. First, add 15 to both sides
a (+15) = 4b - 15 (+15)
a + 15 = 4b
Next, divide 4 from both sides. Remember to divide from all terms.
(4a + 15)/4 = (4b)/4
b = (4a)/4 + (15)/4
b = a + 15/4
b = a + 3.75 is your answer
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