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3 years ago

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Acton Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its m

ost recent year of operations. Estimated manufacturing overhead $132,440 Estimated machine-hours 2,800 Actual manufacturing overhead $128,600 Actual machine-hours 2,750 The estimates of the manufacturing overhead and of machine-hours were made at the beginning of the year for the purpose of computing the company's predetermined overhead rate for the year. The overhead for the year was:

2 answers:

Viefleur [7K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The overhead for the year was: $130,075.

Explanation:

We have the following formula to determine overhead for the year:

+ Overhead for the year = Predetermined overhead rate ($ per machine hour) x Actual machine hours;

in which:

+ Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead / Estimated machine-hours = 132,440 / 2,800 = $47.3/machine hour.

+ Actual machine hours is given at 2,750 hours.

=> Overhead for the year = Predetermined overhead rate ($ per machine hour) x Actual machine hours = 47.3 x 2,750 = $130,075.

So, the answer is $130,075.

loris [4]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

The overhead for the year was $130,075

Explanation:

GIVEN INFORMATION -

ESTIMATED ACTUAL

Manufacturing overhead $132,440 $128,600

Machine hours 2800 2750

Here for calculating the overhead for the year we will use the following formula =

\frac{Estimated Manufacturing Overhead}{Estiamted Machine Hours}\times Actual Machine Hours

= \frac{\$132,440}{2800}\times 2750

\$47.3\times 2750 = \$130,075

Therefore the overhead for the year was $130,075

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Explanation:

From the given information:

The current price = $\dfrac{Dividend(D_o) \times (1+ Growth \ rate) }{\text{Cost of capital -Growth rate}}$

$15 = \dfrac{0.50 \times (1+ Growth rate)}{8\%-Growth rate}$

$15 \times (8 -Growth \ rate) = 0.50 +(0.50 \times growth \ rate)$

$1.20 - (15 \times Growth \ rate) = 0.50 + (0.50 \times growth \ rate)$

$0.70 = (15 \times growth \ rate) \\ \\ Growth \ rate = \dfrac{0.70}{15.50} \\ \\ Growth \ rate = 0.04516 \\ \\ Growth \ rate \simeq 4.52\% \\ \\$

2. The value of the stock

Calculate the earnings at the end of 5 years:

$Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend \ payout \ ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%} \\ \\ = \$1.42857$

$Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$2.51763$

Terminal value year 5 = $\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}$

$=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+0.04516)}{8\%-0.04516}$

=$75.526

Discount all potential future cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

$\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 +Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no\ of\ years} }$

$+ \dfrac{Terminal\ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years}} \Bigg)$

$\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$75.526}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg )$

$\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$75.526}{1.4693} \bigg)$

=$ 54.1945

As a result, the analysts value the stock at $54.20, which is below their own estimates.

3. The value of the stock

Calculate the earnings at the end of 5 years:

$Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend payout ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%}\\ \\ = \$1.42857$

$Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$2.51763 \\ \\$

Terminal value year 5 = $\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)\times dividend \ payout \ ratio}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}$

$=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+ 7 \%) \times 20\%}{8\%-7\%}$

=$53.8773

Discount all potential cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

$\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 + Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no \ of\ years} }+ \dfrac{Terminal \ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years }} \bigg)$

$\implies \bigg( \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$53.8773}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg)$

$\implies \bigg (\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$53.8773}{1.4693} \bigg)$

=$39.460

As a result, the price is $39.460, and the other strategy would raise the value of the shareholders. Not this one, since paying a 100% dividend would result in a price of $54.20, which is higher than the current price.

Notice that the third question depicts the situation after 5 years, but the final decision will be the same since we are discounting in current terms. If compounding is used, the future value over 5 years is just the same as the first choice, which is the better option.

The presumption in the second portion is that after 5 years, the steady growth rate would be the same as measured in the first part (1).

8 0

3 years ago