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il63 [147K]
4 years ago
15

Which number does not belong ,60,54,48,40,36.

Mathematics
2 answers:
spayn [35]4 years ago
5 0
40 because it isn't devisible by 3
mr Goodwill [35]4 years ago
4 0
40 because all the other ones can be divided by 3 and 40 can't. I hope this helped
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Janet paid for her prescriptions costing $37.13. She paid with $50 bill. How much change did Janet get back ?
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

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3 0
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Is the following statement a good definition? Why? An integer is divisible by 100 if and only if its last two digits are zeros.
nikitadnepr [17]

The given statement is An integer is divisible by 100 if and only if its last two digits are zeros.

The two conditional statements that can be made are:

1) If an integer is divisible by 100 its last two digits are zeros.

This is a true statement. If a number is divisible by 100, it means 100 must be a factor of that number. When 100 will be multiplied by the remaining factors, the number will have the last two digits zeros.

<h3>What happen when last two digit of the number are 0?</h3>

2) If the last two digits of an integer are zeros, it is divisible by 100.

This is also true. If the last two digits are zeros, this means 100 is a factor of the integer. So the number will be divisible by 100.

Therefore, the two conditional statements that are formed are both true.

So, option A is the correct answer.

Yes, it is. When the definition is separated into two conditional statements, both of the statements are true.

To learn more about the integer visit:

brainly.com/question/17695139

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