Answer:
$3,402
Explanation:
We are to calculate the future value of the annuity
The formula for calculating future value = A x (B / r)
B = [(1 + r)^n] - 1
R = interest rate
N = number of years
(1.10)² - 1 = 0.21
$1,620 x( 0.21 / 0.1) = $3,402
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation:
Given that,
Price of low-quality apples = $1 per pound
Price of high-quality apples = $4 per pound
Marginal utility of low-quality apples = 3 utils
Marginal utility of high-quality apples = 12 utils
Equimarginal:
(Marginal utility of low quality apples ÷ Price per apple) = (Marginal utility of high quality apples ÷ Price per apples)
(3 utils ÷ $1) = (12 utils ÷ $4)
3 = 3
Yes, Timmy is maximizing his utility as his equimarginal utility is same for both the goods as shown above.
Communication involves both listening and speaking. When you say "What I'm hearing you say" is an example of reflective listening because you are trying to clarify the idea of what the other party is trying to imply. Then listener recaps the message using his own words and tries to give back the speakers idea to confirm if the idea has been understood.
Option D is correct. A CMA is not an appraisal and should not be advertised as one.
<h3>What is a comparative market analysis?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the market analysis that may
be done by the real estate agents.
The goal is to analyze and find out the existing prices in the market by the available listings and previous listings of properties. The reason why the real estate agencies carry out the CMA is to determine the right prices for home sellers to sell their homes.
On the other hand, the purpose is to enable the buyers of these homes to buy the properties at the best possible prices.
Complete question
The Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) is a tool for licensees; which statement below is correct about the CMA?
A) The CMA is the same as an appraisal
B) A CMA is an estimate of value and an appraisal is exact value
C) A CMA and an appraisal must both conform to USPAP standards
D) A CMA is not an appraisal - and should not be advertised as one
Read more on market analysis here;brainly.com/question/17246850
#SPJ1
Answer:
E. January 1, 2017
Explanation:
Financial statements are prepared showing at least two years for the sake of comparability.
It will be important for the company in presenting its financial statement using the IFRS for the year ended December 31st 2018 to show the financial statements for the year ended 31st December 2017 as if it had always applied the IFRS.
The basic idea is to show in the financial statements the effects of adopting the IFRS from a preceding period in order for the entity to show the financial statement for 2017 and 2018 and be able to compare them having been prepared on the same basis.
Thus, the transition date will be the beginning of the preceding period when the IFRS was applied (1st Jan. 2017 oe 31st Dec. 2016).
I hope this explanation makes the concept easy to grasp.
Thank you.
