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yarga [219]
3 years ago
7

Why is cos(nπ) = (–1)n true, when n could be any integer?

Mathematics
2 answers:
rodikova [14]3 years ago
6 0

its true because -1 to even power is positive, -1 to odd power is negative

Elza [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Given, cos\,n\pi=(-1)^n

We state why it is true.

Lets check for some values of n.

for n = 0

⇒ cos\,0=(-1)^0=1

for  n = 1

⇒ cos\,\pi=(-1)^1=-1

for n = -1

⇒ cos\,-\pi=(-1)^{-1)=-1

for n = 2

⇒ cos\,2\pi=(-1)^{2)=1

for n = -2

⇒ cos\,-2\pi=(-1)^{-2)=1

So, Its clear from above . value of cos nπ is either 1 or -1.

value of cos nπ is 1 when n is even integer and -1 when n is odd integer.

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