The difference between the two eras is that: The Modern Age is the third of the historical periods in which universal history is conventionally divided, between the fifteenth and eighteenth centuries. Chronologically it harbors a period whose beginning can be fixed in the fall of Constantinople (1453) or in the discovery of America (1492), and whose end can be placed in the French Revolution (1789) or in the end of the previous decade, after the independence of the United States (1776). However, the Postclassic period begins around the year 800 and ends in 1521, when the Spaniards took the capital of the Aztec empire. The phenomenon that characterizes the Postclassic is the invasion of Mesoamerica by semi-nomadic peoples that came from the north, from the vast expanse of Aridoamerica. These people settled in Mesoamerica, mixed with ancient assimilating settlers many elements of classical cultures. With time, they would create a new civilization, comparable to the most advanced of the American continent.
The most influential in opening the west was the transcontinental railroad. The transcontinental railroad opened up the west because it gave access to millions of citizens the opportunity to move to western states much quicker and cheaper than previous methods of transportation. Along with this, the railroads allowed for easier trading making it so that westerners could easily sell their goods to national markets.
do I have to show my work?:
Explanation:
Answer:
The Ottoman Empire came in World War I as one of the Central Powers. The Ottoman Empire entered the war by carrying out a surprise attack on Russia's Black Sea coast on 29 October 1914, with Russia responding by declaring war on 5 November 1914. Ottoman forces fought the Entente in the Balkans and the Middle Eastern theatre of World War I. The Ottoman Empire's defeat in the war in 1918 was crucial in the eventual dissolution of the empire in 1921.
Explanation:
Typically changing prices only affect supply and demand when one creates artificial demand for it. In almost any cases, it is typically the supply and demand that affects the price changes.
We must firstly understand how supply and demand affect changing prices before we can understand the opposite effect. For example, if there is 100 units, and there are only 50 buyers, the supply is more than the demand. To generate artificial demand therefore, the supplier may lower the prices in an effort to sell off all units. On the other hand, if there is 100 units, but there are more than 100 buyers, than the supplier may raise the prices. This lowers the demand for the product as well as maximizing profits. This example assumes that there is only one supplier of the unit that is in demand.
If however, the supplier has competitors within the field (and is not bound by law to set a certain rate), they may change the prices to be lower than their competitors, in an effort to increase more demand for the prices. It would artificially drive down prices, thereby making profits less. If competitors are not able to survive with less profit and/or be able to lower their own prices, they would be forced to go out of business, either by closing or selling their shops. In turn, when the original company buys up their competitors assets, they then hold a monopoly or close to a monopoly of the given field. This allows them to artificially change the price on their own discretion, typically known for the term <em>price-gouging</em>. Historically in the United States, this has occurred, especially in the oil industry, but price-gouging of many consumer necessities have been banned and a official rate has been set for them.
Essentially, in a true supply and demand, changing a price to be higher than market value may lead to a lower demand, and therefore a surplus of the product, which leads to a artificial low price, while changing a price to be below market value may generate higher demand, which in turn leads to a artificial high price.
~
