Answer:
The statement is true
Explanation:
Tightening monetary policy or curbing money supply in an economy is a move by Federal Reserve to control inflation or bring down over-heated economic growth.
Money supply is curbed by increasing short-term interest rates, thereby increasing cost of borrowing and making borrowing less attractive to public. This increase in short-term rates, also called Federal fund rates are usually greater than long-term interest rates prevailing in the market.
Answer:
$354,500
Explanation:
First find the amount invested ie the Present Value as follows :
n = 25 × 2 = 50
i = 5%
P/yr = 2
Pmt = $0
Fv = $500,000
Pv = ?
Using a Financial Calculator to enter the amounts as above, the Present Value is $145,471
Total Interest = Future Value - Present Value
= $500,000 - $145,471
= $354,529
Thus interest is $354,500 (nearest hundred dollars).
Answer:
6%
Explanation:
As per given data
Quarter Real GDP ($billions) Long-Run Trend of Real GDP ($billions)
1 4,000 4,000
2 4,160 4,120
3 4,326 4,244
4 4,413 4,371
5 4,501 4,502
6 4,591 4,637
7 4,499 4,776
8 4,409 4,919
9 4,673 5,067
10 4,954 5,219
11 5,252 5,376
12 5,376 5,537
Growth of GDP = (DGP of Current/recent period - GDP of Prior period) / DGP of Prior period
In this question prior period is quarter 10 and current /recent period is quarter 11.
So, formula will be
Growth of GDP = (DGP of quarter 11 - GDP of quarter 10) / GDP of quarter 10
As we need to calculate the real GDP growth the formula will be as follow
Growth of real GDP = (Real DGP of quarter 11 - Real GDP of quarter 10) / Real GDP of quarter 10
Growth of real GDP = ($5,252 billion - $4,954 billion) / $4,954 billion
Growth of real GDP = $298 billion / $4,954 billion
Growth of real GDP = 6.02% = 6%
1. The Accelerator Theory of Investment 2. The Internal Funds Theory of Investment 3. The Neoclassical Theory of Investment.
those are the answers you are looking for
Answer:
E. January 1, 2017
Explanation:
Financial statements are prepared showing at least two years for the sake of comparability.
It will be important for the company in presenting its financial statement using the IFRS for the year ended December 31st 2018 to show the financial statements for the year ended 31st December 2017 as if it had always applied the IFRS.
The basic idea is to show in the financial statements the effects of adopting the IFRS from a preceding period in order for the entity to show the financial statement for 2017 and 2018 and be able to compare them having been prepared on the same basis.
Thus, the transition date will be the beginning of the preceding period when the IFRS was applied (1st Jan. 2017 oe 31st Dec. 2016).
I hope this explanation makes the concept easy to grasp.
Thank you.
