The answer to this question would be: <span>A. $55,555
</span>In this question, the interest rate is 0.018% and you need to have $9.99 interest. That mean, you need to divide the target interest value with the current interest rate. The equation should be:
interest = bank account * interest rate
$9.99 = bank account * 0.018%
bank account = $9.99/ 0.018% (don't forget the % mean 1/100)
bank account = $55,500
If we assume that the $9.99 value is $9.99... then the answer would be $55,555
Answer: $187 ⇒ Amount should ABC report as a net pension liability (asset) at Dec 31, 2018
Explanation:
Given that,
Data for 2018 as of Dec 31, 2018 are as follows:
Projected benefit obligation = $634
Accumulated benefit obligation = $418.44
Plan assets at fair value = $821
Pension expense = $192.48
Employer's cash contribution (end of year) = $361
The amount should company report as a net pension liability at Dec 31, 2018 as follows:
Net Pension Liability = Projected benefit obligation - Plan assets at fair value
= $634 - $821
= $187 ⇒ Amount should ABC report as a net pension liability (asset) at Dec 31, 2018
Answer:
YTM is 4.94%
Explanation:
The yield to maturity is the return on the bond throughout the bond's tenure and can be computed using rate function in excel as shown below.
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
nper is the number of coupons the bond has left to pay(23 years*2)
pmt is the semiannual coupon of the bond=$1000*5.3%*6/12=26.5
pv is the curren price=$1000*105%=$1050
fv is the face value of the bond
=rate(46,26.5,-1050,1000)=2.47%
2.47% is the semiannual yield
annual yield=2.47%
*2=4.94%
Answer:
The net income will decrease and also the total assets will also decrease
Explanation:
Here, we want to know the combined effect on net income and total assets of company that made a decision of distributing assets as a property dividend.
As the asset value is down the entry is asset (credit) and loss on asset (debit)
This will effect the net income as it will come down and total assets value also come down
A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.
for better understanding lets explain what conventional peg means
- conventional peg as related to when country formally (de jure) pinpoint their own currency at a fixed rate to the currency of another said country example is, from the currencies of major trading or financial partners and weights showing on the distribution of trade in different geographical zones
- The known backbone or anchor currency or basket weights are public or notified to the IMF and a country authorities are able to maintain the fixed parity through direct intervention
From the above, we can therefore say that the answer A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows is correct.
learn more about exchange rates from:
brainly.com/question/21384395
