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choli [55]
3 years ago
11

Wellington Corp. has outstanding accounts receivable totaling $1.27 million as of December 31 and sales on credit during the yea

r of $6.4 million. There is also a debit balance of $3,000 in the allowance for doubtful accounts. If the company estimates that 1% of its net credit sales will be uncollectible, what will be the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after the year-end adjustment to record bad debt expense?
Business
2 answers:
julia-pushkina [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$61,000 Cr.

Explanation:

There are two views to this answer:

First, where year end balance of allowance will be 1% of net credit sales.

Provided credit sales for the period = $6.4 million

Non-collectible amount = 1% of net credit sales.

Therefore at the year end balance for un-collectible allowance for doubtful debts shall be $6.4 million \times 1% = $64,000

Since balance is debit of $3,000

Entry shall be of $64,000 + $3,000 = $67,000 credit against bad debt expense account.

After year end adjustment entry of $67,000

Bad Debt Expense Account Dr.                $67,000

       To Allowance For Doubtful Debts                      $67,000

Balance of allowance for doubtful debts = $3,000 Dr + $67,000 Cr = $64,000 Cr.

Second view,

In this view we have the expense for the year to be $64,000 that is 1% of $6.4 million of sales.

Therefore, entry will be

Bad Debt Expense Account Dr.                     $64,000

        To Allowance for doubtful debts A/c                  $64,000

Expense for current year recorded.

After this year end balance for allowance = $64,000 Cr - $3,000 Dr. = $61,000 Cr.

Since second view is more logical, it will be considered as the expense for the year shall be limited to 1% of sales = $64,000.

Thus, Final Answer = $61,000 Cr.

soldi70 [24.7K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts of Wellington Corp after the year-end adjustment to record bad debt expense will be:

$12,700.

Explanation:

First of all, we need to find out the formula to calculate this and then do the proper operations. The formula is total outstanding out less than the percentage of uncollectible accounts. So, we need to locate our numbers. First, our total outstanding shares are 1.27 million. Our next step is to find out the percentage of net uncollectible sales, that figure is 1%. So we multiply 1,270,000 per .01 and we obtain 12,700.

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Equipment that cost $660,000 and has accumulated depreciation of $300,000 is exchanged for equipment with a fair value of $480,0
amid [387]

Answer:

$240,000          

Explanation:

The computation of the gain to be recognized is shown below:

= Total Exchange value - net value

where,

Total exchange value equals to

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=$600,000

And, the net value would be

= Estimated cost - accumulated depreciation

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= $360,000

ow put these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equal to

= $600,000 - $360,000

= $240,000

7 0
3 years ago
You are offered a chance to buy an asset for $4,500 that is expected to produce cash flows of $750 at the end of year 1, $1,000
cupoosta [38]
4500 + 750 + 850 + 6250 = 13,350 totally amount
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Lopez Company uses both standards and budgets. For the year, estimated production of Product X is 597,000 units. Total estimated
sertanlavr [38]

Answer: (a) Materials = $2 and Labor = $2.8

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Explanation:

(a) Standard cost :

Standard cost is evaluated as a per unit amount.

For Materials,

=  \frac{1194000}{597000}

= $2

For Labor,

=  \frac{1671600}{597000}

= $2.8

(a) Budgeted cost :

Budget cost are evaluated as the total amount.

Therefore, for this year the budgeted cost are Materials = $11,94,000 and Labor = $16,71,600

5 0
4 years ago
you inherit $10,000 with the stipulation that you for the first year the money must be invested in two stocks paying 6% and 11%
Crank

Answer:

At 6% $3,529.412 will be invested

At 11% $6,470.588 will be invested

Explanation:

Let x be the investment for 6% stock

And (10,000-x) is the investment it 11% stock

Let I be interest earned on both investments.

Using the formula

Principal(p)= Interest(I)*Rate(r)*Time(t)

p/RT= I

So considering both investments

x/(6%*1)= (10,000-x)/(11%*1)

x/0.06= (10,000-x)/0.11

Cross-multiply

0.11x= 0.06(10,000-x)

0.11x= 600- 0.06x

Rearranging

0.11x+ 0.06x= 600

0.17x= 600

x= 600/0.17= 3,529.412 amount invested at 6%

Amount invested at 11%= 10,000-3,529.412

= 6,470.588

8 0
3 years ago
The College of Business is deciding between two photocopier options. The first is to lease a high-end machine for $8,400/year. T
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The first is to lease a high-end machine for $8,400/year.The only additional costs are the cost of paper, which is $0.01/sheet.

The other option is to purchase a machine. The cost is $5,000 and the per sheet cost increases (toner, maintenance) to $0.02.

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A) Volume= 270,000

Option 1:

Total cost= 8,400 + 0.01*270,000= $11,100

Option 2:

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Option 2 is the cheapest.

B) Volume= 240,000

Option 1:

Total cost= 8,400 + 0.01*240,000= $10,800

Option 2:

Total cost= 5,000 + 0.02*240,000= $9,800

Option 2 is the cheapest.

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3,400= 0.01x

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The indifference point is 340,000 paper sheets.

5 0
3 years ago
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