Hello!
acid-test (quick) ratio=(Cash+short term investments+accounts receivable)÷current liabilities
acid-test (quick) ratio is
(63,200+44,800)÷132,000=0.8182
0.8182×100=81.82%
Good luck!
Answer:
ehdhdhdhdhhdjdjdjdj
Explanation:
nxnxnxndnfjfnfjdjdjdhfhryyrhdhdhdhdjdjdjdjfhfhfjdjdj
Answer: $230,000
Explanation:
In our case,
Undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of the product = $ 600,000 and
Carrying value of the asset = $ 720,000.
We can come to a conclusion that the benefit we get from the sale of the asset is less that carrying value.
Hence, the asset is said to be impaired.
Therefore,
Impairment Loss = Carrying value - Fair value of the asset
= 720,000 - 490,000
= $230,000.
Answer: 6.01%
Explanation:
To solve this question, we.will use the financial calculator. Based on the information given, then we will have:
FV = Future Value = $1,000.00
PV = Present Value = -$960.00
Bonds yield = 6.50
N = Number of years = 12
Therefore, CPT > PMT = Payment will be = $60.0973
Then, Coupon rate will be:
= Payment / Face Value
= 60.0973 / 1000
= 6.01%
Answer:
They are exempt from paying tax
Explanation:
Taxable income is the amount of an individual's gross income that the government deems subject to taxes.
However, because they are aged (above 65), and their taxable income -which should be $32000 after deductions - is less than the percentage tax relief,they are exempted from paying tax for that particular year.
