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AURORKA [14]
3 years ago
9

Solving multi step equations 2y + 8 + 4y = 44

Mathematics
2 answers:
rjkz [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

y=6

Step-by-step explanation:

6y+8=44

44-8=6y

6y=36

6y/6 =36/6

y=6

creativ13 [48]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

y = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

1) You need to use like terms with the 2y and the 4y. You will add them together to get 6y.

Your equation should look like this now: 6y +8 = 44

2) You subtract the 8 from each side and that cancels the 8 out of the left side and makes the right size equal 36.

Your equation should look like this now: 6y = 36

3) Then you need to get the 6 off of the y so you divide both sides by 6.

Your should now have: y = 6

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3 years ago
Janice is 4 inches shorter than David, and David is 2 inches shorter than Evan. If Evan is 13 inches taller than Kathleen and Ka
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Answer: Janice is 1 inch taller than Krysta.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the height of Krysta denoted by h .

According to the given statements , we will write height of each person in terms of 'h'.

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i.e. Height of Kathleen = h-6

Evan is 13 inches taller than Kathleen.

i.e. Height of Evan = (h-6)+13=h-6+13=h+7

i.e. Height of Evan =h+7

David is 2 inches shorter than Evan.

i.e. Height of David = (h+7)-2  =h+7-2

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Janice is 4 inches shorter than David.

i.e. Height of Janice= (h+5)-4=h+1

i.e. height of Janice = height of Krysta+  1 inch  [∵ h= height of Krysta]

⇒ Janice is 1 inch taller than Krysta.

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please answer asap will give brainiest
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

79% - almost 4 times out of 5.

The key to this is realizing that the number of games will not always be 5.

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If A wins in 4, now we have 2/3*(2/3)*2/3*(1/3)*3 - the 1/3 is the chance that B wins a game. Note - there are only 3 ways B can win a game, not 4. B cannot win Game 4 because Game 4 would not be played in case of a sweep. That is why you cannot use a straight Pascal’s triangle to get your coefficients - the 1–4–6–4–1 is not possible if B cannot win Game 4. Anyway, the math is the same as the above, a 29.63% chance of A winning in 4.

For a 5 game set, A could lose 2 games in 6 possible ways (lose 1&2, 1&3, 1&4, 2&3, 2&4 or 3&4). Again, A cannot lose Game 5 - it would not be played once A wins 3 games. So the odds become 2/3*(2/3)*2/3*(1/3)*(1/3)*6, or 19.75%.

Add them up and you get 79.01%

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps<3

6 0
3 years ago
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choli [55]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

MA²=MX²+AX²

=20²+21²

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8 0
2 years ago
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sashaice [31]

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