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irga5000 [103]
3 years ago
5

John is a supervisor of 30 employees at a small restaurant. He makes his employees work overtime without pay, and he steals thei

r tips. What is John guilty of?
Business
2 answers:
diamong [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: John is guilty of WAGE THEFT

Explanation:

Wage theft just as the name implies, is the stealing of worker's due wages or benefits. When this occurs, a labourer or worker will normally get just a proportion of what he or she truly deserved or earned at that given period. So we can simply describe wage theft as any action by an employer that results in the labourers or workers not getting fully paid for their efforts or for the work that they have done.

Wage theft can mean an employer denying his/her employees minimum wage, illegal deductions, unpaid overtime, or unpaid hours.

So, if John makes his employees to work overtime without paying them for the overtime and steals their tips, then John is certainly guilty of WAGE THEFT.

VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

John is guilty of Wage Theft.

Explanation:

Wage theft is referred to as  the denial of wages or employee benefits rightfully owed to an employee. It can be demonstrated by employers of labor in various ways, among them is failing to pay overtime; violating minimum-wage laws; illegal deductions in pay; forcing employees to work "off the clock", not paying annual leave or holiday entitlements, or simply not paying an employee at all.

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An increase in the firm's WACC will decrease projects' NPVs, which could change the accept/reject decision for any potential pro
STatiana [176]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The first part was true. A higher WACC results in a lower NPV simply because a higher discount rate results in a lower present value.

E.g. 100 / (1 + 6%)³ = 83.96, but if we increase r to 10%, then 100 / (1 + 10%)³ = 75.13

The second part is wrong because under the IRR method, the decision rule is very simple, all projects are accepted if their IRR is higher than the project's WACC (or discount rate). I.e. if hte project's WACC increases, so does the chance of the project being rejected because the IRR might be lower than the WACC.

7 0
4 years ago
The goods a company has available to sell to customers are called
Fofino [41]
I think the most appropriate answer would A.

I hope it helped you!
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Supplier power tends to be highest in industries with all of the following attributes: (1) the supplier’s product is vital to bu
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

the correct answers are

(1) the supplier’s product is vital to buyers;

(2) switching from one supplier to another is very costly

the 3rd answer is INCORRECT.

Explanation:

If there are many suppliers to chose from, then the supplier bargaining power is low.

7 0
3 years ago
On August 1, Harris Co. determines that it cannot collect $200 from its customer, L. Dash. Harris Co. uses the direct write-off
finlep [7]

Answer:Bad Debt Expense

Explanation:

Accounts receivable would be credited under the allowance method

7 0
3 years ago
Glavine Corporation manufactures precision equipment made to order for the semiconductor industry. Glavine uses two manufacturin
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

1.                                               Machining           Assembly

Budgeted overhead rates

= <u>Budgeted overhead</u>            <u>5,850,000 </u>        <u>7,812,000  </u>

  Budgeted activity level        90,000 hours   124,000 hours

                                               = $65/machine hr  = $63/labour hr

2. Overhead applied

= Overhead application rate    $65 x 80,000 hrs  $63 x 100,000

 x Actual activity level               = $5,200,000        = $6,300,000

Under allocated overhead

= Overhead applied                     = $5,200,000       = $6,300,000

- Actual overhead                          - $5,470,000        - $8,234,000

                                                         $270,000              $1,934,000

Note: Actual machine hours of 80,000 hours and actual direct labour hours of 100,00 hours are assumed because these figures were omitted from the question.

Explanation:

Budgeted overhead rate is calculated as budgeted overhead for each department divided by budgeted activity level for each department. Overhead applied is budgeted overhead rate multiplied by actual activity level  (actual hours) for each department. The actual machine hours and actual direct labour hours were omitted from the question. Thus, 80,000 machine hours and 100,000 direct labour hours were assumed for Machining Department and Assembly Department respectively. Then, under allocated overhead is calculated as overhead applied minus actual overhead incurred for each department.

3 0
4 years ago
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