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3 years ago

The lines y = 3x + 4 and y = 3x - 17 are perpendicular

Mathematics

1 answer:

belka [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: No

Step-by-step explanation: Here's something that I learned. Same slope different y-intercept (no solution). Same slope and same y-intercept (Infinitely many solutions). Different slope and same y-intercept (one solution). Different slope and different y-intercept (one solution).

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For each pair figures, find the ratio of the area of the first figure to the area of the second. 14mm 7mm

Paraphin [41]

The ratio of the area of the first figure to the area of the second figure is 4:1

<h3>Ratio of the areas of similar figures </h3>

From the question, we are to determine the ratio of the area of the first figure to the area of the second figure

The two figures are similar

From one of the theorems for similar polygons, we have that

If the scale factor of the sides of two similar polygons is m/n then the ratio of the areas is (m/n)²

Let the base length of the first figure be ,m = 14 mm

and the base length of the second figure be, n = 7 mm

∴ The ratio of their areas will be

$(\frac{14 \ mm}{7 \ mm})^{2}$

$= \frac{196 \ mm^{2} }{49\ mm^{2} }$

$=\frac{4}{1}$

= 4:1

Hence, the ratio of the area of the first figure to the area of the second figure is 4:1

Learn more on Ratio of the areas of similar figures here: brainly.com/question/11920446

8 0

2 years ago

Will give Brainly! Need help!

densk [106]

Answer:

(-3,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Please brainleist me

3 0

3 years ago

Can someone please help me?

vovangra [49]

Answer:

the answer to the question is 39

4 0

3 years ago

If the diameter is 15.5 cm what is the circumference

tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

The circumference is given by

C = pi *d

C = 15.5 pi

If we approximate pi by 3.14

C = 15.5 * 3.14

C =48.67

If we use the pi button

C =48.69486813

8 0

3 years ago

Fill in the blanks. If a function is one-to-one then its inverse will be _____________. If a function is NOT one-to-one then its

katrin [286]

Answer:

Inverse functions Inverse Functions If f is a one-to-one function with domain A and range B, we can de ne an inverse function f 1 (with domain B ) by the rule f 1(y) = x if and only if f(x) = y: This is a sound de nition of a function, precisely because each value of y in the domain of f 1 has exactly one x in A associated to it by the rule y = f(x).

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps

4 0

3 years ago