Answer:
Refer To The attached screen shot. It contains the Income Statement Prepared under Absorption Costing.
Explanation:
Absorption Costing assumes that the Manufacturing Costs include Direct Material, Direct Labor, Variable Overhead, and Fixed Overhead. Whereas, Selling and Administrative Expenses are classified as period Costs. These period costs are recognized in the period in which they are incurred. On the other hand, the manufacturing costs are recognized when the goods on which the costs were incurred are sold. That's why we don't recognize $78,000 as a Fixed Overhead because these overhead costs were incurred to produce 6,000 rackets. We have to calculate the fixed overhead cost per unit and multiply it with the units sold.
I hope I made it clear. If you have any queries, feel free to contact me.
Thanks.
Answer:
$5.89
Explanation:
The computation of current dividend per share is shown below:-
(Dividend in One Year) ÷ Current Price
= 14% ÷ 2
= 7%
Dividend = Dividend yield × Stock currently sold per share
= 0.07 × $90
= 6.3
Current dividend per share = Dividend ÷ (1 + Dividend yield)
= 6.3 ÷ (1 + 0.07)
= 6.3 ÷ 1.07
= $5.89
Therefore for computing the current dividend per share we simply applied the above formula.
<span>The nominal group technique which is a group process involving problem identification, solution generation, and decision making. Its uses are in groups of many sizes, who want to make their decision quickly, as by a vote, but want everyone's opinions taken into account</span>
Answer:
Sell interest-earning assets in order to obtain non-interest-bearing money
Explanation:
The liquidity preference theory states that investors prefer cash or highly liquid assets to long term assets that carry high risk.
When investors obtain long term assets the charge higher interest rates or premium in order to mitigate associated risk.
In this scenario when the supply of money is higher than demand, there is abundance of non interest bearing money that is highly liquid.
According to the liquidity preference theory investors will sell their interest bearing assets and go for assets with high liquidity (non Interest bearing money)
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Trademark infringement refers to the violation of the exclusive privileges assigned to a trademark without including the permission of the trademark owner and any licensee Violation that arise when one person, the "infringer," uses a trademark that is equivalent or ambiguously related to a trademark used by some other group in connection to goods or services that are equivalent or identical to the goods or services.
Where the corresponding marks and products are wholly different, violation of the trademark could still be identified if the recorded label is well recognized under the Paris Agreement. In the U.s a cause of litigation is termed trademark dilution with the use of a label for such significantly different facilities.
