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vaieri [72.5K]
3 years ago
10

Pairs of jeans?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vera_Pavlovna [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$534

Step-by-step explanation:

$89 × 4= $356

$89 × 2= $178

356+178= 534

dangina [55]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$534

Step-by-step explanation:

89*2=178

178+89(4)=534

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X+3=15 what’s x because I keep on getting 18 and it says I’m wrong on Pearson
icang [17]

Answer:

x = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 3 from both sides

p.s. it would be 18 if it was x-3 = 15

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do I do this activity?
d1i1m1o1n [39]

In the X column put 1, 2, and 3

for the y column, plug in the 1, 2, or 3 into the X

for example, a) y=5x+3  

x= 1, 2, 3                 y=5(1)+3 = 8

y= 8, 13, 18

7 0
3 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
−7m+4&lt;−45 <br><br> its an one-step problem help me please
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

x > 7

Step-by-step explanation:

- 7m + 4 < - 45 ( subtract 4 from both sides )

- 7m < - 49

Divide both sides by - 7 , reversing the symbol as a result of dividing by a negative quantity.

m > 7

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which pair are equal trig values? A) tan 45° and sin 45° Eliminate B) sin 40° and sin 50° C) sin 36° and cos 54° D) cos 65° and
ira [324]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

note that sin x = cos(90 - x ) ← Cofunction identity

If x = 36 then 90 - x = 90 - 36 = 54

Hence sin 36° = cos 54° → C


3 0
3 years ago
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