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NikAS [45]
4 years ago
15

The founders of the U.S. wanted to avoid establishing a permanent aristocracy or group of wealthy families who could control a g

reat deal of the nation’s wealth. How is this idea related to estate and gift taxes?
Business
1 answer:
VLD [36.1K]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

There are two points that I would like to single out that are very similar. First by implementing tax and gift taxes, Founding Father wanted to weaken families and business of that time, since there was a threat that rich families could become permanent aristocracy which over time could lead to the point where that families will rule the US. Second, by implementing those two taxes, government is taking a share from receivers since the receivers are getting some good that they did not earn it, they have just received it as a gift or as an estate. This way inheritance or gift would be of a much lesser value then it was before someone’s death or before someone made a gift. This was important because wealth of powerful families would just accumulate and grow so government of that time, strictly out of political reasons, prescribed those two taxes, so that the wealth will be smaller of value after tax.

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Denials can occur as a result of errors that occur at various points in the revenue cycle. Identify at least one error that can
wolverine [178]

Answer:

Hi bro

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
4 years ago
Temporary Housing Services Incorporated (THSI) is considering a project that involves setting up a temporary housing facility in
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

Option D. $6.25 Million

Explanation:

The Free Cash Flow can be calculated using the following formula (Ignoring investment):

Free Cash Flow = (Revenue - Operating Expenses)   Minus  Tax

Here

Revenue is $20 Million

Operating Expenses are $12 Million

And

Tax is not given however tax rate is given which is 35% here. For tax purposes, we will assume that the depreciation is tax allowable expense, so

Tax = (Revenue - Operating Expenses - Depreciation) * Tax rate

By putting values we have:

Tax = ($20m - $12m - $3m) = $1.75 Million

The cash impact is taken while calculating the Free cash flow. This free cash flow method is also used in IRR, NPV, discounted payback method, etc.

By putting values in the above bold equation, we have:

Free Cash Flow = ($20m - $12m) - $1.75 = $6.25 Million

8 0
4 years ago
The standard quantity of materials allowed is computed as a.Unit Quantity Standard × Normal Output. b.Unit Quantity Standard × A
SpyIntel [72]

Option B

The standard quantity of materials allowed is computed as  Unit Quantity Standard × Actual Output.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

A standard is a benchmark or "pattern" for ranking production. In managerial accounting, standards associated with the price and quantity of inputs utilized in producing goods or rendering services. The "standard quantity provided for the actual output" indicates the number of the input that should have been practiced to generate the actual output of the session.

It is measured by squaring the standard amount of input per unit of output by the actual output. To scale production, actual quantities accepted are related to standard quantities enabled.

8 0
4 years ago
Here is selected financial statement data regarding a company's property, plant, and equipment.
Ahat [919]

Answer:

sale for 346,000

Explanation:

1,725,000 - 1,600,000 = 125,000

if we acquire 500,000

and the different is 125,000 this means we sale for :

purchase - sales = net change

500,000 - sales = 125,000

sales = 500,000 - 125,000 = 375,000

now we solve for the depreciation during the year applied to these assets

520,000 - 465,000 = 55,000

depreciation expense for  the year 90,000

there is 35,000 depreciation write off therefore, associate with the traded PPE

net book value of the traded PPE:

375,000 - 35,000 = 340,000

we have a gain for 6,00 thus we sale for 346,000

We had a gain for 6,000

6 0
3 years ago
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