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EastWind [94]
4 years ago
12

1) What is international currency arbitrage all about? Consider the following data: UK 90-day interest rate = .07 Europe 90 day

interest rate = .048 £1.00 = €1.200, Foo =€ 1.1765 You work for PNB Paribas in France. From a French point of view, is covered interest arbitrage available? If not, why not? If so, employ €10,000,000 and show how you would exploit the opportunity? Explain how the act of exploiting the arbitrage opportunity eliminates it. (in answering this question, ignore differences)
Business
1 answer:
balandron [24]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

- International currency arbitrage is about simultaneous buy and sales of currency in the market to make risk-free profit from the differential in exchange rate and difference between market interest rate each currency brings about.

- In the question, from the French point of view, there are not opportunities for arbitrage.

To illustrate, for example, we have €10,000,000 for investment:

First, exchange €10,000,000 for £8,333,333.33 at spot ( 10 million /1.2)

Enter into Forward contract to fixed exchange rate after 90 days at £1.00 = €1.1765

Invest £8,333,333.33 at 90-day, 7% per annum to receive £8,479,166.66 at maturity ( Principal + interest = 8,333,333.33 x [1 + (7.0% x 90/360)] )

Convert £8,479,166.66 to €9,921,816.66 ( 8,433,333.33 x 1.1765).

While if we keep the amount in € and invest, we will get €10,120,000

=> Return on € of the investment is €9,921,816.66/€10,120,000 -1 = 1.96%

In other words, the higher return on £ denominated asset over the € is not large enough to cover the depreciation of £ in comparison to €.

- As investment in € denominated asset yields higher returns, investor will exchange have higher demand of £ in forward transaction which will increase the value of £ in forward transaction. Besides, higher demand for € denominated asset will cause the price to increase, that is, interest rate decrease. Gradually, the arbitrage transactions will exploit the arbitrage opportunity.

Explanation:

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An October sales forecast projects that 7,000 units are going to be sold at a price of $11.50 per unit. The desired ending inven
REY [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is:

$80,500 (b.)

Explanation:

First of all, not that total anticipated October sales is the same thing as projected October sales. Therefore, this sale is calculated as follows:

Projected sales = 7,000

unit price = $11.50 per unit

Therefore

Price for 7,000 units = 11.5 × 7,000 = $80,500

5 0
4 years ago
If the Golden Braid Bookstore has a current (or working capital) ratio of 8.25:1, $40,000 in accounts receivable, $340,000 in ca
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

Inventory value = $280,000

Explanation:

given data

current ratio = 8.25 : 1

accounts receivable = $40,000

cash = $340,000

accounts payable = $65,000

current liabilities = $15,000

to find out

how much inventory do they have

solution

                                         Current asset      Current liabilities

Present current ratio            8.25                    1

Total current liabilities                                      $80,000

Total current assets          $660,000

so here Inventory value will be as

Inventory value = Total current assets - Cash - Accounts receivable ..........1

Inventory value = $660,000 - $340,000 - $40,000

Inventory value = $280,000

5 0
3 years ago
Part E14 is used by M Corporation to make one of its products. A total of 19,000 units of this part are produced and used every
Gennadij [26K]

Answer: ($24100)

Explanation:

The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company goes thus:

The relevant cost to produce will be:

= ($4.10 × 19,000) + ($8.70 × 19,000) + ($9.20 × 19,000) + ($4.60 × 19,000) + $31,000

= $77900 + $165300 + $174800 + $87400 + $31000

= $536,400

The relevant costs to buy will be:

= 19,000 × $29.5

= $560,500

Since the relevant cost to buy is more than the relevant cost to produce, then the financial disadvantage will be:

= $560500 - $536,400

= $24,100

The answer is ($24,100)

5 0
3 years ago
The owner of a small convenience store observed that almost all customers paid with credit cards regardless of whether they had
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

B. After the charge was instated, customers who used cash for purchases totaling two dollars or more spent more, on average, than customers who used credit cards for these purchases.

Explanation:

Since the average transaction remained almost unchanged, that means that customers who used to spend $2 or less are now spending more on average. Assuming that customers that purchase higher amounts didn't change their habits, the only way that the cash purchases equal credit card purchases is that people paying in cash buy more things.

E.g. there are 20 transactions worth more than $2 which are paid using a credit card, so the average transaction is more than $2. In order for cash purchase to have a similar mean, the some transactions will be less than $2 but other transactions must be higher in order to increase the mean of cash purchases: 15 cash transactions worth $1 and 5 cash transactions worth $6, mean cash transaction = $2.25.

5 0
3 years ago
The market value of a house is $500,000. The assessment rate is 30%. The Equalization Factor is 1.25. The tax rate is 70 mills.
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

$13,125

Explanation:

Given:

Market value = $500,000

Assessment rate = 30% = 30/100 = 0.30

Equalization Factor = 1.25

Tax rate = 70 mils = 70/1000 = 0.07

Computation of The annual ad valorem tax:

Assessed value = Market value × Assessment rate

= $500,000 × 0.30

= $150,000

The annual ad valorem tax = Assessed value × Equalization Factor × Tax rate

= $150,000 × 1.25 × 0.07

= $13,125

3 0
4 years ago
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