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VladimirAG [237]
3 years ago
14

Koch traded machine 1 for machine 2 when the fair market value of both machines was $50,000. Koch originally purchased machine 1

for $75,000 and machine 1's adjusted basis was $40,000 at the time of the exchange. Machine 2's seller purchased it for $65,000 and machine 2's adjusted basis was $55,000 at the time of the exchange. What is Koch's adjusted basis in machine 2 after the exchange?
Business
1 answer:
trasher [3.6K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

machine 2                   45,000

acc depreciation mchine 1         35,000

machine 1                                    75,000

Explanation:

The seller valuation are not relevant the important is the fair value. Which is 50,000.

<u>If there was commercial substance</u> we will recognize a gain for 5,000

(50,000 fair value - 45,000 book value)

However, <u>we are not given with information of commercial substance,</u> so we should not recognize any gain or loss in trade.

The machine 2 will enter the accounting for the same value as the previous machine net book.

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Will a u.s. treasury bill have a risk premium that is higher than, lower than, or the same as that of a similar security (in ter
aleksklad [387]

A U.S. Treasury bill will have a lower risk premium since U.S. government-issued securities are usually considered to be default free.

In comparison to a company bond with a Baa rating, a company bond with a score will have a higher risk premium on its interest. While compared to corporate bonds with a Baa rating, the C grade bond has a higher default risk, which reduces demand and increases interest rates.

The equity risk premium enables to set portfolio go back expectancies and decide asset allocation. A better top rate implies that you might make investments a greater percentage of your portfolio into shares. Capital asset pricing also relates a inventories anticipated go back to the equity premium.

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7 0
2 years ago
Jones Manufacturing incurred fixed overhead costs of $8,000 and variable overhead costs of $4,600 to produce 1,000 gallons of li
anygoal [31]

Answer:

Jone Manufacturing

Total Overhead Variance = $2,000U.

Explanation:

Variance is the difference between budgeted and actual expense.  It is favorable when the actual is less than the budgeted amount.  It is unfavorable when the actual is more than the budgeted amount.  It is neither favorable nor unfavorable when the actual equals the budgeted amount.

Variance analysis as a budgeting tool is used to evaluate the performance of management in managing costs, relative to the activity levels.  

In Jones Manufacturing, actual and budgeted costs are calculated as follows:

Actual costs:

Fixed overhead = $8,000

Variable overhead = $4,600

Total = $12,600

Budget costs:

Fixed overhead = $10,000 (2,000 hours x $5)

Variable overhead = $4,600

Total = $14,600

Variance = budgeted overhead minus actual overhead

= $14,600 - $12,600 = $2,000U

6 0
3 years ago
Spyder Corporation’s technology and business strategies became entangled, what would this be considered?
ankoles [38]

When a business's strategies and technology are able to become entangled, this is called <u>Technology integration. </u>

<h3>What is technology integration?</h3>
  • Refers to the process of aligning a business's strategies with its available technology.
  • This allows for increased efficiency to achieve organizational goals.

When Spyder Corporation's technology was entangled with its business strategies, this allowed for technology integration that will contribute to the success of their business.

Find out more on benefits of technology at brainly.com/question/1162014.

4 0
3 years ago
There are two options for reporting the Operating Section of the statement of cash flows. What are the distinct differences betw
Fantom [35]

Answer:

The statement of cash flows is one of the most important financial statements of a company, since a company might be very profitable but if it doesn't have enough cash to function, then it will go bankrupt. This is normally more important when things are not going well, e.g. Ford didn't go bankrupt during the great recession because it had lots of cash, while GM and Chrysler ran out of cash and had to be bailed out.

Companies can survive without making any profits during many years and still be a success, e.g. Amazon, but no company can survive without cash. In finance and investing, cash is king.

The two ways to calculate cash flows are the direct and indirect method. The direct method is calculating through the differences between cash inflows and outflows. On the other hand, the indirect method starts with net income and is then adjusted for depreciation and amortization, increase in accounts receivables, etc.  

Personally, I prefer the indirect method because it is much more simple to prepare and understand. Folks at FASB and IASB prefer the direct method because according to them it provides a clearer picture of the company's cash outflows and inflows. It sounds reasonable until you learn that companies that present the cash flows using the direct method must also present them using the indirect method. Or the companies can simply present the indirect method. So I'm not really sure that their argument is very solid.

4 0
3 years ago
homework Gamma Inc. bought new office furniture in the year 2002. The purchase cost was 57,617 dollars and in addition it had to
mart [117]

Answer:

The depreciation for 2006 will be $5,411 as per double declining balance method;

Explanation:

Cost of Furniture             $57,617

Installation cost               $14,316

Total cost                         $71,933

The asset purchased in 2002 and will have salvage value of $2,500 in 2017.It means useful life of furniture is 15 years

Depreciation in 1st year as per double decline method=($71,933/15)*2=$9,591

Depreciation in 2003=$62,342*(1/15)*2=$8,312

Depreciation in 2004=$62,342-$8,312=$54,029*1/15*2=$7,203

Depreciation in 2005=$54,029 -$7,203=$46,826*1/15*2=$6,243

Depreciation in 2006=$46,826-$6,243=$40,582*1/15*2=$5,411

7 0
3 years ago
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