Answer:
b.use the S-2 employee
Explanation:
Calculation for the the most cost-effective solution
S-1 S-2 S-3
Time for 1 unit (in minutes) 30 24 21
Units in 1 hour 2 2.5 2.857142857
(60/30= 2)
(60/24=2.5)
(60/21=2.857142857)
Wages per hour $ 16.00 $ 19.00 $ 22.00
Wages per/ unit $ 8.00 $7.60 7.70
($ 16.00/2=$8)
($ 19.00/2.5=$ 7.60)
($ 22.00/2.857142857=$ 7.70)
Ranking
S-1 $ 8.00 III
S-2. $7.60 I
S-3 7.70 II
Therefore based on the above Calculation the most cost-effective solution will be to use the S-2 employee
This excess should be credited to Budgetary Fund Balance Unassigned.
<h3>
What is Fund Balance?</h3>
Any specific fund's fund balance is basically what is left over after the fund's assets are used to pay its liabilities. Both the reserved and unreserved portions of the fund balance must be disclosed.
<h3>What is Unassigned Fund Balance?</h3>
The term "unassigned fund balance" refers to the balance that remains after non-spendable, restricted, committed, and assigned funds have been deducted from the total amount. It contains all spendable monies that are not included in the other classes. That's not a very simple explanation.
Therefore, perhaps the simplest approach to considering the unassigned fund balance is the amount of money available to stop a cash flow problem.
Therefore, in a town's general fund operating budget for the year, the number of its estimated revenues exceeded the number of its appropriations. This excess should be credited to Budgetary Fund Balance Unassigned.
For more information on Budgetary Funds, refer to the link:
brainly.com/question/16033301
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Answer:
authorized 100,000
issued 70,000
outstanding 70,000 - 4,000 treasury stock = 66,000
Explanation:
The amount authorized doesn't change unless the company start the legal procedure to do it.
The shares, once issued, can't be destroyed.
Te outstanding shares are the mount in the market, that will be the issued shaes less the treasury stock, which are shares in the company's possesion.
Answer:
It will take 50 months to complete the payment on his entire balance
Explanation:
We have to solve for n in an annuity:
C $20.00
time n
rate (0.1524 / 12 months per year) 0.00127
PV $969.1600
Now, we use logarithmics properties to get the answer:
[tex]-n= \frac{log0.93845834}{log(1+0.00127)
n = 50.044991
I think for this question, you have, to be honest about what you can do and how you want to achieve them. This question can not be answered in general, but it should be replied to according to what you can and can not do. It is important that when you are doing the interview, you are confident and sincere towards your goal.
