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labwork [276]
3 years ago
8

When a life insurance company advertises the safety and security of its products, it is using a ________ advertising strategy.

Business
2 answers:
horrorfan [7]3 years ago
3 0

I believe the answer is: C. persuasive

Persuasive advertising strategy, is a form of technique that is used to influence the consumers to do something, based on their pathos (appeal to the emotions)  logos ( appeal to their logical thinking) , and ethos (appeal to the ethical standard that they held in their life)

Vlad [161]3 years ago
3 0
The answer is C) persuasive advertising strategy
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Even though many ballparks practice price discrimination between adults and children in selling tickets, such discrimination is
IRISSAK [1]
Discrimination is not applied at the concession stands because there can be exchange of the product from children, who'd buy it at a lower price, to adults.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Debit CreditCash $2,870 Accounts Receivable $3,231 Supplies 800 Equipment 3,800 Accounts Payable 2,666 Unearned Service Revenue
nirvana33 [79]

Answer:

TRIAL BALANCE

Assets:

Cash $2,920

Accounts Receivable $3,051

Supplies $300

Equipment $4,300

Total assets 10,571

Liabilities + Stockholders' Equity

Accounts Payable $2,200

Unearned Service Revenue $875

Common Stock $6,000

Retained Earnings $1,496

Total liabilities + stockholders' equity 10,571

Explanation:

1.Cash received from a customer on account was debited for $570, and Accounts Receivable was credited for the same amount. The actual collection was for $750.

Dr Cash 180

    Cr Accounts receivable 180

2. The purchase of a computer printer on account for $500 was recorded as a debit to Supplies for $500 and a credit to Accounts Payable for $500.

Dr Equipment 500

    Cr Supplies 500

3. Services were performed on account for a client for $890. Accounts Receivable was debited for $890 and Service Revenue was credited for $89.

Dr Accounts receivable 0

    Cr Service revenue 801

4. A payment of $65 for telephone charges was recorded as a debit to Office Expense for $65 and a debit to Cash for $65.

Dr Office expense 0

    Cr Cash 130

5. When the Unearned Service Revenue account was reviewed, it was found that service revenue amounting to $325 was performed prior to June 30 (related to Unearned Service Revenue).

Dr Unearned service revenue 325

    Cr Service revenue 325

6. A debit posting to Salaries and Wages Expense of $670 was omitted.

Dr Wages expense 670

    Cr Cash 0

7. A payment on account for $206 was credited to Cash for $206 and credited to Accounts Payable for $260.

Dr Accounts payable 466

    Cr Cash 0

8. A dividend of $575 was debited to Salaries and Wages Expense for $575 and credited to Cash for $575.

Dr Retained earnings 575

    Cr Wages expense 575

Service Revenue 2,380 + 801 + 325 = 3,506

Salaries and Wages Expense 3,400 + 670 - 575 = 3,495

Office Expense 940

net loss -929

Cash $2,870 + 180 - 130 = 2,920

Accounts Receivable $3,231 - 180 = 3,051

Supplies 800 - 500 = 300

Equipment 3,800 + 500 = 4,300

Accounts Payable 2,666 - 466  = 2,200

Unearned Service Revenue 1,200 - 325 = 875

Common Stock 6,000

Retained Earnings 3,000 - 575 - 929 = 1,496

4 0
3 years ago
The Campbell Company is considering adding a robotic paint sprayer to its production line. The sprayer's base price is $940,000,
Tanya [424]

Answer:

a. Year 0 Net Cash Flows = $984,000

b. We have:

Year 1 net operating cash flows = $306,159

Year 2 net operating cash flows = $332,986

Year 3 net operating cash flows = $261,479

c. Additional Year 3- cash flow = $504,877

d. The machine should be purchased.

Explanation:

We start by first calculating the following:

Initial Investment = Base Price + Modification Cost = $940,000 + $25,000 = $965,000

Useful Life = 3 years

Depreciation in Year 1 = 0.3333 * $965,000 = $321,634.50

Depreciation in Year 2 = 0.4445 * $965,000 = $428,942.50

Depreciation in Year 3 = 0.1481 * $965,000 = $142,916.50

Book Value at the end of Year 3 = $965,000 - $321,634.50 - $428,942.50 - $142,916.50 = $71,506.50

After-tax Salvage Value = Salvage Value - (Salvage Value - Book Value) * Marginal tax rate = $624,000 – ($624,000 - $71,506.50) * 25% = $485,877

Initial Investment in NWC = $19,000

We can now proceed as follows:

a. What is the Year 0 net cash flow?

Year 0 Net Cash Flows = Initial Investment + Initial Investment in NWC = $965,000 + $19,000 = $984,000

b. What are the net operating cash flows in Years 1, 2, 3?

Year 1 net operating cash flows = (Pretax Cost Saving * (1 - tax)) + (tax * Depreciation in year 1) = ($301,000 * (1 – 0.25)) + (0.25 * $321,634.50) = $306,159

Year 2 net operating cash flows = (Pretax Cost Saving * (1 - tax)) + (tax * Depreciation in year 2) = ($301,000 * (1 – 0.25)) + (0.25 * $428,942.50) = $332,986

Year 3 net operating cash flows = (Pretax Cost Saving * (1 - tax)) + (tax * Depreciation in year 3) = ($301,000 * (1 – 0.25)) + (0.25 * $142,916.50) = $261,479

c. What is the additional Year 3- cash flow (i.e. after tax salvage and the return of working capital)?

Additional Year 3- cash flow = NWC recovered + After-tax Salvage Value = $19,000 + $485,877 = $504,877

d. If the project's cost of capital is 12%, should the machine be purchased?

This can be determined from the net present value (NPV) calculated as follows:

NPV = -$984,000 + ($306,159/1.12^1) + ($332,986/1.12^2) + ($261,479/1.12^3) + ($504,877/1.12^3) = $100,287.71

Since the NPV of the machine of $100,287.71 is positive, the machine should be purchased.

7 0
3 years ago
Prepare the adjusting entry to record bad debts expense assuming uncollectibles are estimated to be (1) 3% of credit sales, (2)
Genrish500 [490]

Answer:

1.

Date                   Account Title                                             Debit          Credit

Dec. 31             Bad debt expense                                    $9,000

                        Allowance for doubtful accounts                                 $9,000

Working

= 3% * 300,000

= $9,000

2.

Date                   Account Title                                             Debit          Credit

Dec. 31             Bad debt expense                                    $12,000

                        Allowance for doubtful accounts                              $12,000

Working

= 1% * total debt

= 1% * (900,000 + 300,000)

= $12,000

3.

Date                   Account Title                                             Debit          Credit

Dec. 31             Bad debt expense                                    $12,500

                        Allowance for doubtful accounts                              $12,500

Working

= 6% * Accounts receivable

= 6% * 125,000

= $7,500

As the Allowance account is in debit, it means that bad debt exceeded the allowance so this balance needs to be added to properly cater for bad debts.

= 7,500 + 5,000

= $12,500

8 0
3 years ago
Arrange the types of investments in the correct order from the least risky to the most risky investment.
Anarel [89]

Bonds will be the least risky since there is no risk involved at all. Bonds give out guaranteed payments and A rated bonds will be even more secure.

The next would be property. Since property is a physical asset, the risk involved is relatively lower than stocks.

The next would be retirement plans which would typically have bonds and stocks.

The most risky would be speculative stocks.

The order from least risky to most risky would be:

1. A rated bonds

2. Property

3. Retirement plans

4. Speculative stocks


3 0
3 years ago
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