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natima [27]
3 years ago
9

firm uses both labor and machines in production. Explain why an increase in the average wage rate causes both a movement along t

he demand curve and a shift of the demand curve. An increase in the average wage causes a movement
Business
1 answer:
lara31 [8.8K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is explained below

Explanation:

When a firm increases the average wage rate, the firm would employ fewer workers causing a movement up along the demand curve and a shift to the left of the labor demand curve. As wage increase, the firm production will reduce because of a decrease in number of staffs, the causes the number of machines needed for production to reduce causing the marginal product of labor to shift to the left. The labor demand is further reduced, the firm then employ less labor at a higher wage.

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Heidi​ Debeneditti, the Finance Director of CH2M​ Hill, states that selection really begins with early planning even before you
Kitty [74]

Answer:

The correct answer is job specification.

Explanation:

The specification of the work consists in ordering in a more detailed way what the position in the organization should perform and so that its work is efficient starting from a series of factors (competences) that have to be included in the specification these will depend on the type of work that is being considered and the purpose of the specification.

The most common factors are the following:

  • Education
  • Experience
  • Mental ability
  • Responsibility
  • Effort
  • Working conditions
  • Risks

These descriptions have some formats that are proposed according to the organization and the design to be available based on their analysis and well executed description. Finally, these require a guide for writing descriptions.

6 0
3 years ago
Solano Company has sales of $580,000, cost of goods sold of $410,000, other operating expenses of $54,000, average invested asse
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

1.

ROI=6.44%

Investment Turnover=0.32

Profit Margin=20%

Residual Income (RI) = -$46,000

2.

a) ROI =9.28%, RI= $5,000

b) ROI=7.19%, RI= -$32,500

c) ROI=6.15%, RI= -$51,400

d) ROI=5.4%, RI= -$76,600

e) ROI=6.44%, RI= -$154,000

Explanation:

1. ROI is calculated as (Operating profit/Average net asset/Investment)*100.

Investment turnover is calculated as Net sales/Average net asset/Investment.

Profit Margin is calculated as Operating profit/Total sales.

Residual Income is calculated as Operating profit-(Average net asset/Investment * Hurdle rate).

Note: Operating profit= Sales-(Cost of goods sold+Operating expenses)

2.

a) 30% increase in sales & cost of goods sold will increase the ROI & Residual income.

b) Decrease in operating expense will increase the operating income, thereby increasing the ROI & RI.

c) Increase in operating expense by 10% will reduce the operating income, thereby decreasing the ROI & RI.

d) Increase in average invested assets by $340,000 will reduce the ROI & RI.

e) Change in hurdle rate will not change the ROI; however, it will decrease the residual income (RI).

6 0
4 years ago
Jennifer is marketing manager for a major consumer goods firm. She is interested in determining if market opportunity exists for
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

- How to best segment the ready-made dinner market.

4 0
4 years ago
Quanti Co., a calendar year taxpayer, purchased small tools for $5,000 on December 21, 2016, representing the company's only pur
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

1 and a half months worth of depreciation

Explanation:

The advantage of starting to depreciate an asset purchased on December is that next year you will be able to depreciate it for a full year under MACRS.  Generally, when you purchase an asset, you have to use the half year convention and your depreciation expense for the first year will be low compared to the second year. But if you start depreciating your asset in the current year, even if you purchased it on December and the depreciation expense is not that significant, the next year you will be able to depreciate it at the second year rate.

7 0
4 years ago
The bonds issued by Manson amp; Son bear a coupon of 6 percent, payable semiannually. The bond matures in 15 years and has a $1,
bogdanovich [222]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the yield to maturity is as follows;

Given that

PMT = Coupon rate = $1,000 × 6% ÷ 2 = $30

Future value = $1,000

Present value = $1,000

NPER = 15 × 2 = 30 years

Since the bond sells at par so the present value would be equivalent to the future value

Also the coupon rate is equivalent to the yield to maturity i.e. 6%

So this is neither a premium nor a discount bond as the coupon rate is equivalent to the yield to maturity

8 0
3 years ago
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