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3 years ago

Which explanation can be used to informally derive the formula for the volume of a cone?

Mathematics

2 answers:

labwork [276]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: Just took the test and got the answer!! Step-by-step explanation: Look at the image down below ♡＼(￣▽￣)／♡

kvasek [131]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: The answer is (D) A cylinder is exactly 3 times bigger than a cone with the same height and radius. Therefore, the formula for the volume of a cone is 1/3 of the volume of a cylinder with the same height and radius.

Step-by-step explanation: We know that a Cone is a three-dimensional geometric figure with a circular base as shown in the attached figure (a). In fact, a Cone is a pyramid with a circular cross-section.

The volume of a Cone and a Cylinder are related to each other. The volume of a cylinder is

$V_{cylinder}=\pi r^2h$

and the volume of a cone is

$V_{cone}=\dfrac{1}{3}\pi r^2h.$

Therefore, if the radius of the base and height of a cone and a cylinder are same, the the volume of the cone is one-third of the volume of cylinder. So, we can join 3 cones together to form a single cylinder having radius and height equal to the radius of base and height respectively of the cone. See the attached figure (b).

Thus, the correct option is (D).

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Let X denote the time from the present until the stock market hits 25,000. If X ≤ 1, you win $10, 000X. If X > 1, you win not

const2013 [10]

Answer: $6321

Step-by-step explanation:

Expected value is given as exactly what you might think it means intuitively, the return you can expect for some type of action.

The basic expected value formula is the probability of an event multiplied by the amount of times the event happens:(P(x) * n).

he formula for the Expected Value for a binomial random variable is:

P(x) * X.

X is the number of trials and P(x) is the probability of success.

The formula for calculating the Expected Value where there are multiple probabilities is:

E(X) = ∑X * P(X)

The equation is basically the same, but here you are adding the sum of all the gains multiplied by their individual probabilities instead of just one probability.

Calculating the expected value of winning as follows:

Given,

Fx= e^-x, x is greater or equal to 0

Now, P less than or equal to zero =

[-e^-x] ^1

e^-0 - e^-1

= 1 - e^-1

= 0.6321

and P(x>1) = 1-0.6321= 0.3679

Therefore,Let y= amount of winnings.

Based on the above given information,

y= $10000 0

P(y)= 0.6321 0.3679

The expected value of winning:

E(y) = ΣyP(y)

E(y) = 10000 × 0.6321 + 0 × 0.3679

E(y) = $6321

Therefore, the expected value of winning is $6321

5 0

3 years ago

Which of the following is equivalent to the quadratic equation below after

Temka [501]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2 + 10x + 5 - 30 = 0

x^2 + 10x - 25 = 0

x^2 + 10x = 25

x^2 + 10x + 25 = 25 + 25

(x + 5)^2 = 50 <====

3 0

4 years ago

The 40th parallel of north latitude runs across the United States through Philadelphia, Indianapolis, and Denver. At this latitu

Ronch [10]

Answer:

793.25 mi/hr

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

The radius of the earth is = 3030 miles

The angular velocity = $\dfrac{\pi}{12} rads$

If a jet flies due west with the same angular velocity relative to the ground at the equinox;

We are to determine the How fast in miles per hour would the jet have to travel west at the 40th parallel for this to happen.

NOW;

Distance s is expressed by the relation

s = rθ

$s = 3030(\frac{\pi}{12} )$

s = 793.25

The speed which depicts how fast in miles per hour the jet would have traveled is :

$speed (v) = \frac{s}{t}$

$v = \frac{793.25}{1}$

v = 793.25 mi/hr

Hence, the jet would have traveled 793.25 mi/hr due west at the 40th parallel for this to happen.

7 0

3 years ago

What is the value of (6.6*10¹⁷)-(9.2*10¹⁴) over (4*10¹⁶)

Gennadij [26K]

Answer:

6.59999999999999999977 × 10^17

Step-by-step explanation:

6.6 x 10^17 - (9.2 x 10^14)/(4 x 10^16)

4 0

3 years ago

A) Two angles are adjacent if their measures add up to 90°.

slavikrds [6]

Answer:

A) False

B) False

Step-by-step explanation:

A. Two angles whose measures add up to 90° are said to be complementary, while two angles are adjacent when formed beside each other. So, adjacent angles might be complementary or supplementary. Thus, the answer to the first part of the question is false.

B. When two angles share a side, they are said to be adjacent to each other. But supplementary angles add up to $180^{o}$ . Since adjacent angles might be complementary or supplementary, then the answer to the second part of the question is false.

4 0

3 years ago