I’m sorry for making it happen again but it’s not like that
Answer:
b. Consolidate all credit cards onto a single card with a single interest rate.
Explanation:
When a debt payment plan is initiated then, it is decided according to the outstanding amounts, that which shall be paid first and the order of payment for remaining debts.
For this monthly income and expenses are to be evaluated, in order to decide how much payment shall be made accordingly, in each month.
But this entire process do not involve the step of aggregating all the cards so that there is only one card with the same payment. There is no relation to any such payment.
Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
Answer:
Export of labor-intensive products
Heavy investment in building a world-class infrastructure to attract foreign investment
Explanation:
The population of China is the highest in the world, hence they concluded that they needed to use their number to their own advantage by adopting a labor-intensive production technique which enables them to export their products as well as ensuring a higher percentage of the populace is gainfully employed, little wonders how China products are available the world over.
Also, they provided world class infrastructures which serve as incentives for foreign direct investment, for instance Apple moved its main factory to China due to the cheaper and available workforce coupled with the state of the art technological infrastructural development achieved by the Chinese people.
Answer:
$57.11
Explanation:
$25.85 × 4 = $103.40
$15.70 × 2 = $31.40
Total cost of purchase = $134.80
6% tax = 0.06 × $134.80 = $8.09
Total cost of purchase including tax = $142.89
Change received by Blaine = $200 - $142.89 = $57.11
I hope my answer helps you
